Quiz+

Q 1

Studies show that when companies have high-quality human resource practices and programs,those companies have higher levels of employee satisfaction,financial performance,and service performance.

Free

True False

True Explanation: Studies show that companies have higher levels of employee satisfaction,financial performance,and service performance when the company has high-quality human resource practices and programs.

Q 2

Google's treatment of its employees is indicative of its belief that its biggest competitive advantage lies in its personnel department.

Free

True False

False Explanation: Happy people are more productive.That productivity has made Google an earnings powerhouse.Google has discovered that its biggest competitive advantage lies in its human resources,its people.

Q 3

Human resource (HR)management consists of the activities managers perform to plan for,attract,develop,and retain an effective workforce.

Free

True False

True Explanation: Human resource (HR)management consists of the activities managers perform to plan for,attract,develop,and retain an effective workforce.

Q 4

The sole purpose of the human resource management process is to recruit and select people.

True False

Q 5

Establishing the mission and vision is the first step in the strategic human resource process.

True False

Q 6

Social capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions.

True False

Q 7

Social capital is the economic or productive potential of strong,trusting,and cooperative relationships.

True False

Q 8

Understanding current employee needs is the sole purpose of strategic human resource planning.

True False

Q 9

Interviews with people who currently hold a job is part of a job analysis for that position.

True False

Q 10

A job specification describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform the job successfully.

True False

Q 11

The process of writing job analyses,descriptions,and specifications often helps you to avoid hiring people who are underqualified.

True False

Q 12

A report that lists an organization's employees by name,education,training,languages,and other important information is called a human resource inventory.

True False

Q 13

Reports from the U.S.Census Bureau are a good source of information to assess internal candidates for promotion.

True False

Q 14

Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between management and employees about disputes over compensation,benefits,working conditions,and job security.

True False

Q 15

A 1947 law,the Taft-Hartley Act,allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.

True False

Q 16

Products from child labor were banned under the Taft-Hartley Act.

True False

Q 17

The 2010 health care reform legislation requires employers with less than 50 employees to provide health insurance.

True False

Q 18

The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of unpaid leave for medical and family reasons,including for childbirth,adoption,or family emergency.

True False

Q 19

The Equal Pay Act requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination.

True False

Q 20

Antidiscrimination laws require employers to extend preferential treatment because of race,color,or religion.

True False

Q 21

Programs that try to make up for past discrimination in employment by actively finding,hiring,and developing the talents of people from groups traditionally discriminated against are known as Title VII.

True False

Q 22

Hostile environment occurs when the person to whom the unwanted sexual attention is directed is put in the position of jeopardizing being hired for a job or obtaining job benefits or opportunities unless he or she implicitly or explicitly acquiesces.

True False

Q 23

Tiffany is an architect for the building of a large office complex downtown.Frequently a group of steel workers whistle at her as she climbs a ladder or interacts with staff.The men's actions create a hostile work environment.

True False

Q 24

Internal recruitment,hiring from the inside,means making people already employed by the organization aware of job openings.

True False

Q 25

Most jobs are filled through external recruiting,mainly through job postings.

True False

Q 26

LinkedIn,a business-oriented social network,accounts for 94% of the people hired via social media.

True False

Q 27

To protect their own reputations,employees are fairly careful about whom they recommend and provide a good source of employee referrals.

True False

Q 28

A job analysis gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired.

True False

Q 29

There are fewer risks with internal recruiting because internal candidates are already known and are familiar with the organization.

True False

Q 30

Recruiting is the process of screening job applicants to hire the best candidate.

True False

Q 31

References are an ineffective way to obtain reliable information about a prospective job candidate.

True False

Q 32

Interviewing is the most commonly used employee-selection technique.

True False

Q 33

Structured interviews are more accurate than unstructured interviews in assessing an applicant's job-related personality traits.

True False

Q 34

Structured interviews involve asking each applicant different questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers.

True False

Q 35

An example of a behavioral-description interview question is "What was the best idea you ever sold to a supervisor,teacher,peer,or subordinate?"

True False

Q 36

In a behavioral-description interview,the interviewer explores how applicants might respond to situations in the future.

True False

Q 37

Application forms,interviews,and educational requirements are not legally considered employment tests.

True False

Q 38

An assessment center is typically used to assess physical capabilities of skilled labor candidates.

True False

Q 39

Performance tests are a more direct measure of how well the employee will perform in the job on actual job tasks than personality tests.

True False

Q 40

Validity means that the test measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.

True False

Q 41

An orientation helps a newcomer fit smoothly into the job and the organization.

True False

Q 42

Understanding the organization's mission and operations,the job routine and the organization's work rules and benefits should be considered an integral part of employee orientation.

True False

Q 43

The first step in the training process is an assessment of what training is needed.

True False

Q 44

HR professionals distinguish between training and development.

True False

Q 45

Computer-assisted instruction is often a type of off-the-job training.

True False

Q 46

When doing a performance appraisal,the manager will assess the employee's performance and provide feedback.

True False

Q 47

The continuous cycle of improving job performance through goal setting,feedback and coaching,and rewards and positive reinforcement is called performance management.

True False

Q 48

A company that evaluates its truckers based on miles of freight hauled is using subjective appraisals.

True False

Q 49

Subjective appraisals are harder to challenge legally than objective appraisals.

True False

Q 50

Because the evaluator's personal bias can affect the ratings,trait appraisals' validity may be questionable.

True False

Q 51

A behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)rates employee gradations in performance according to scales of specific behaviors.

True False

Q 52

The type of appraisal in which employees are evaluated by their managers,peers,and subordinates is called the 360-degree assessment.

True False

Q 53

Depending on preparation,the forced ranking performance review system may have negative effects on morale,productivity,and loyalty or it may encourage managers to identify and remove poor performers.

True False

Q 54

Every year 10% of GE's managers are assigned the bottom grade,and if they don't improve,they are asked to leave the company.This is an example of a forced ranking performance review system.

True False

Q 55

Formal appraisals are conducted on an unscheduled basis and consist of less rigorous indications of employee performance.

True False

Q 56

Incentives are not considered a part of compensation.

True False

Q 57

Factors such as what the individual's level is in the organization or how much experience he or she has do not determine basic compensation.

True False

Q 58

Stock options are found not to induce employees to be more productive or to attract or retain top performers.

True False

Q 59

Designed to enrich the lives of all employees in the organization,who are paid all or in part by the organization,benefits are additional nonmonetary forms of compensation.

True False

Q 60

In the United States,private industry spends an average of $31.93 per hour worked in employment compensation,of which wages and salaries accounted for 69.9% and benefits 30.1%.

True False

Q 61

Recreation options,country club memberships,and discounts on merchandise are not considered examples of benefits.

True False

Q 62

Simplicity is one of the keys to a successful incentive-pay plan.

True False

Q 63

If there is a problem such as an employee who has personal differences with his or her boss,a transfer may be used to solve the problem.

True False

Q 64

An employee can be dismissed permanently "for cause" for absenteeism.

True False

Q 65

The great majority of union workers are in the public-sector.

True False

Q 66

The "closed shop," in which an employer may hire for a job only workers who are already in the union,is legal in the United States.

True False

Q 67

Mediation is the process in which a neutral third party,an arbitrator,listens to both parties in a dispute and makes a decision that the parties have agreed will be binding on them.

True False

Q 68

Changing the name from personnel department to the human resource department is intended to suggest the importance of staffing to a company's success.

True False

Q 69

Which of the following is not one of the soft skills employers often find lacking in many Millennial applicants? A)professional appearance B)familiarity with social media C)manners D)punctuality E)ability to communicate

Multiple Choice

Q 70

____________ includes the activities managers perform to plan for,attract,develop,and retain an effective workforce. A)Personnel development B)Contingency planning C)Job analysis D)Human resource management E)Performance appraisal

Multiple Choice

Q 71

Which of the following is not part of the strategic human resource management process? A)Plan human resources needed. B)Establish grand strategy. C)Recruit and select people. D)Orient,train and develop. E)Negotiate employment contract.

Multiple Choice

Q 72

What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A)Plan future human resources needs. B)Recruit and select people. C)Assess success of recruitment process. D)Perform appraisals of people. E)Orient,train,and develop people.

Multiple Choice

Q 73

______________ is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions. A)Human capital B)Labor capital C)Social capital D)Potential capital E)Productivity capital

Multiple Choice

Q 74

__________________ includes aspects such as goodwill,mutual respect,trust,cooperation,and teamwork. A)Relational capital B)Social capital C)Personal capital D)Productivity capital E)Human capital

Multiple Choice

Q 75

________________ is the purpose of the strategic human resource process. A)Maintaining a stable workforce for minimum expense B)Informing the grand strategy C)Formulating human resource-sensitive strategic plans D)Getting optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision E)Finding the human resources needed in a timely fashion

Multiple Choice

Q 76

A specialist at UPS who rides with couriers to learn about delivery time measurements and potential service problems is conducting a job __________________. A)analysis B)specification C)posting D)description E)rotation

Multiple Choice

Q 77

Michele had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 25 years,so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed.Before she left,Sharon sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions.Sharon was performing a(n)__________. A)behavioral-description interview B)performance appraisal C)informal appraisal D)job rotation E)job analysis

Multiple Choice

Q 78

A ______ summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she does it. A)job analysis B)realistic job preview C)job specification D)job description E)performance appraisal

Multiple Choice

Q 79

In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future,human resource managers should __________. A)focus efforts on replacing those who retire or resign B)assume that the organization will not change much C)assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization's jobs,so defer planning D)hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth E)understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them

Multiple Choice

Q 80

A(n)___________ is a report listing your organization's employees by name,education,training,languages,and other important information. A)performance appraisal B)skills record C)human resource inventory D)job analysis E)employee database

Multiple Choice

Q 81

Ricco,a HR manager,used reports from the U.S.Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S.Census Bureau for information about his industry's labor pool in his geographic area to __________. A)perform a job analysis B)recruit from inside the organization C)recruit from outside the organization D)develop an affirmative action program E)analyze human capital

Multiple Choice

Q 82

The ______________ enforce(s)procedures so employees may vote to have an union and for collective bargaining. A)Fair Labor Standards Act B)National Labor Relations Board C)Civil Rights Acts D)Occupational Safety and Health Department E)Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

Multiple Choice

Q 83

Which piece of legislation first established the U.S.federal minimum wage? A)Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) B)Social Security Act C)Civil Rights Act D)Occupational Safety and Health Act E)Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

Multiple Choice

Q 84

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission was established by the _________________ Act. A)Equal Pay B)Wagner C)Title VII of the Civil Rights D)Occupational Safety and Health E)Social Security

Multiple Choice

Q 85

Which of the following helps guarantee nonhazardous working conditions for employees? A)Civil Rights Act B)Fair Labor Standards Act C)Occupational Safety and Health Act D)National Labor Relations Board E)Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Multiple Choice

Q 86

The ____________ is a law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination. A)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) B)Social Security Act C)Civil Rights Act D)Occupational Safety and Health Act E)Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

Multiple Choice

Q 87

The ________________ requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance. A)Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act B)Social Security Act C)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D)Occupational Safety and Health Act E)Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

Multiple Choice

Q 88

A California software firm was growing rapidly and hiring frequently,but primarily focused on campus recruiting at UC Berkeley and Stanford.When one older candidate did not get an interview after a phone screening,he went to the company's website and noted all of the young people in charge.He filed a discrimination lawsuit based on which law? A)Age Discrimination in Employment B)Civil Rights Act C)Sarbanes-Oxley Act D)Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E)Americans with Disabilities Act

Multiple Choice

Q 89

Allie has a degenerative eye disease that is causing her to gradually lose her eyesight.When Allie asked her employer to purchase a low-vision computer for her use at work,she was instead let go.This violates provisions of the __________. A)Family and Medical Leave Act B)Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) C)Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) D)Privacy Act E)Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Multiple Choice

Q 90

______ occurs when people are hired or promoted,or denied hiring or promotion,for reasons not relevant to the job. A)Affirmative action B)A hostile working environment C)Quid pro quo D)Bullying E)Discrimination

Multiple Choice

Q 91

After being referred by a friend,Hasina attended a job interview.She didn't feel it went well,but was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that she had worn her hijab,a traditional headscarf.The boss told a coworker after the interview,"Our customers prefer working with Christians." This is an example of __________. A)affirmative action B)discrimination C)quid pro quo D)favoritism E)hostile work environment

Multiple Choice

Q 92

Which type of workplace discrimination occurs when an organization uses an employment practice that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class? A)disparate treatment B)reverse discrimination C)unequal application D)harassment E)adverse impact

Multiple Choice

Q 93

If a firm gives all international assignments to people without disabilities,assuming they will therefore not require special accommodations,which type of workplace discrimination has occurred? A)adverse impact B)reverse discrimination C)harassment D)wage gap E)disparate treatment

Multiple Choice

Q 94

For years,a mathematics professor experienced abusive behavior at a community college where he taught.It began with a group of managers spreading rumors and false accusations that threatened his job.It was emotionally draining and took time and focus away from his job.This is an example of __________. A)reverse discrimination B)bullying C)disparate treatment D)quid pro quo E)adverse impact

Multiple Choice

Q 95

Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true? A)A hostile work environment is characterized by a tangible economic harm. B)A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo. C)The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the situation. D)Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment. E)Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.

Multiple Choice

Q 96

Maria worked in a manufacturing facility.Throughout the building there were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature,and they made Maria very uncomfortable.This is __________. A)a hostile work environment B)not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Maria C)sexual discrimination D)not of legal concern because Maria is not suffering any economic injury E)a quid pro quo harassment

Multiple Choice

Q 97

_______________ is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization. A)Recruiting B)Selection C)Hiring D)Job posting E)Interviewing

Multiple Choice

Q 98

________ entails job posting,placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the company's intranet. A)Job analysis B)Realistic job previewing C)Position advertising D)Internal recruiting E)External recruiting

Multiple Choice

Q 99

Which of the following is the most effective source of new employees? A)private employment agencies B)newspaper ads C)employee referrals D)college recruiters E)unions

Multiple Choice

Q 100

Compared to internal recruiting which of the following is true of external recruiting? A)It encourages greater employee loyalty. B)The process is more expensive and takes longer. C)It creates the need for multiple recruitments. D)The pool of talent is more limited. E)The process is cheaper.

Multiple Choice

Q 101

When Jason became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large pharmaceutical company,the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him.There,the two talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position,as well as the compensation and benefits.Jason appreciated that the director took time to conduct a(n)__________. A)behavioral-description interview B)performance appraisal C)unstructured interview D)situational interview E)realistic job preview

Multiple Choice

Q 102

Which of the following statements about background information is false? A)The most prevalent distortion in a resume is lying about education. B)Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be unqualified and dishonest employees. C)Many employers don't give honest assessments of former employees. D)People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history. E)Many resumes contain factual errors or falsehoods.

Multiple Choice

Q 103

A(n)______________ is susceptible to legal attack because some questions may infringe on non-job-related matters such as privacy,diversity,or disability. A)realistic job preview B)situational interview C)performance interview D)behavioral-description interview E)unstructured interview

Multiple Choice

Q 104

During a(n)_______________,Megan asked Jeff to tell her about a time when he was able to overcome some sort of adversity. A)realistic job preview B)performance interview C)situational interview D)unstructured interview E)behavioral description interview

Multiple Choice

Q 105

Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews? A)Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest. B)After the interview,write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications. C)Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its culture. D)Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate. E)The resume should be used for selection of interview candidates only;ignore it thereafter.

Multiple Choice

Q 106

Which of the following may be considered,legally,to be an employment test? A)only personality tests B)only interviews and personality tests C)small talk before and after the interview D)only application forms E)any procedure used in the employment selection decision process

Multiple Choice

Q 107

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a(n)______ test. A)personality B)reliability C)performance D)ability E)character

Multiple Choice

Q 108

When Jackie interviewed for a position as a computer programmer,she was asked to take a test on a particular programming language.This is an example of a(n)__________. A)ability test B)personality test C)aptitude test D)performance test E)capability test

Multiple Choice

Q 109

The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its __________. A)reliability B)accountability C)validity D)significance E)dependability

Multiple Choice

Q 110

Which of the following is not one of the five steps in the training process? A)attendance B)assessment C)objectives D)selection E)implementation

Multiple Choice

Q 111

Haley,a HR manager,had a meeting with the Vice President of Safety to determine if the new safety training program appears to be effective in preventing and reducing the number of accidents.Haley is performing which step of the training process? A)evaluation B)objectives C)selection D)implementation E)Assessment

Multiple Choice

Q 112

Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to learn facts such as work rules or legal matters? A)coaching B)role-plays C)discussion D)case studies E)videotapes,workbooks,and lectures

Multiple Choice

Q 113

Mary,a HR manager,is designing a training class for those working on the new cross-functional teams within her company.This class is aimed at improving group decision-making and interpersonal relations.What method of delivery should she choose? A)lectures B)computer-aided training C)workbooks D)videotapes E)role-playing,practice,and discussion

Multiple Choice

Q 114

Which of the following is a typical off-the-job training method? A)coaching B)job rotation C)computer-assisted instruction D)role-playing E)planned work activities

Multiple Choice

Q 115

___________ refers to educating technical and operational employees in how to better do their current job. A)Training B)Assessment C)Development D)Orientation E)Evaluation

Multiple Choice

Q 116

Performance appraisal consists of __________. A)rotating job positions B)setting standards and monitoring performance C)motivating and counseling D)assessing performance and providing feedback E)motivating and monitoring performance

Multiple Choice

Q 117

MBO is consistent with a(n)______ performance appraisal. A)360-degree B)subjective C)objective D)BARS E)traits or behaviors

Multiple Choice

Q 118

As a sales manager,Danyce is conducting performance appraisals for her team members.To do so,she tracks each person's sales calls,amount of sales,and revenues on a quarterly basis.Danyce is using a(n)______ system of appraisal. A)subjective B)behavioral C)trait D)objective E)360-degree

Multiple Choice

Q 119

The type of appraisal that is most subject to validity problems due to evaluator bias is called ____________ evaluation. A)behavioral B)360-degree feedback C)objective D)trait E)personality

Multiple Choice

Q 120

The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or leadership is a(n)______ appraisal. A)objective B)self- C)behavioral D)trait E)360-degree

Multiple Choice

Q 121

The type of performance appraisal that judges specific,observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n)______ appraisal. A)MBO B)behavioral C)self- D)objective E)results

Multiple Choice

Q 122

Dora is conducting a performance appraisal for Sue,one of her employees.The company's performance appraisal form asks her to rate Sue's performance on various items like "Submits reports on time with minimal errors" on a scale from 1 to 5.Dora's is using a ______ appraisal system. A)behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) B)360-degree C)MBO D)results E)trait

Multiple Choice

Q 123

A feedback technique in which an employee is appraised by her boss,peers,subordinates,and possibly clients is called a __________ appraisal. A)MBO B)360-degree C)results D)reciprocal E)BARS

Multiple Choice

Q 124

Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk. A)performance B)trust C)training D)change E)development

Multiple Choice

Q 125

__________ is a performance review system in which all employees within a business unit are ranked against one another. A)Standard curve B)Forced ranking C)Unit grading D)Normal distribution E)360-degree assessment

Multiple Choice

Q 126

Cody was surprised to learn that not everyone would receive a bonus this year.Instead,management planned to rank all of the employees in his division and award bonuses only to the top 20%.This is an example of a(n)______ performance review system. A)unit grading B)forced ranking C)functional positioning D)normal distribution E)standard curve

Multiple Choice

Q 127

The point of the performance appraisal is to __________. A)provide a paper trail of manager-employee interactions B)avoid legal problems,especially discrimination complaints C)demonstrate correct methods for work procedures D)make sure that the subordinate's behavior is tightly controlled E)stimulate better job performance

Multiple Choice

Q 128

In giving performance feedback to employees,a manager should __________. A)use other employees as examples B)describe a subordinate's current performance in general terms C)concentrate on "stretch goals" D)rely on impressions E)use both formal and informal appraisals

Multiple Choice

Q 129

Which of the following is the best statement of feedback? A)"You're always doing personal stuff at work." B)"That's the wrong way to sort those packages." C)"Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve." D)"You are really unmotivated at work lately." E)"You've got to figure out how to improve your relationship with Susie."

Multiple Choice

Q 130

Which of the following is not a type of compensation? A)wages B)salaries C)incentives D)benefits E)promotions

Multiple Choice

Q 131

Which of the following is not an example of an incentive? A)stock options B)commissions C)profit-sharing plans D)bonuses E)education reimbursements

Multiple Choice

Q 132

Executives often negotiate generous severance packages that they receive if the company is taken over by another.These are known as __________. A)silver linings B)fringe benefits C)maquiladoras D)life insurance E)golden parachutes

Multiple Choice

Q 133

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful incentive pay plan? A)clear and realistic goals B)regular communication with employees about the incentive plan C)complex and comprehensive rules D)simplicity E)consistency with the organization's existing goals

Multiple Choice

Q 134

In managing employees under an incentive pay plan,a manager should __________. A)set "stretch" goals that are very difficult (perhaps impossible)to achieve B)set goals with employees,but then leave them alone to pursue those goals C)change the plan frequently to continue to motivate subordinates D)regularly communicate with employees about the plan E)design complex plans that cover all contingencies

Multiple Choice

Q 135

A manager must ensure fairness and __________ in considering a promotion of an employee. A)openness B)permanence C)profitability D)safety E)nondiscrimination

Multiple Choice

Q 136

Which of the following is not a principal reason why an employee may be transferred? A)employee's skills are needed in another part of the organization. B)employee is suspected of illegal behavior. C)to retain employee interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge. D)employee has personal differences with their present boss. E)to broaden employee experience.

Multiple Choice

Q 137

Being dismissed "for cause" means that __________. A)an employee has the right to get the position back in the future B)an employee quit the job C)the company is downsizing,and the jobs are permanently eliminated D)an employee is being fired for job performance E)an employee is being laid off

Multiple Choice

Q 138

The risk of "wrongful termination" lawsuits is reduced with careful _________________. A)coaching B)training and development C)discussion at the time of dismissal D)documentation E)goal setting

Multiple Choice

Q 139

______ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all,or for no reason. A)Fair termination B)Capricious dismissal C)Quid pro quo D)Nonrational dismissal E)Employment at will

Multiple Choice

Q 140

The three types of dismissals are layoffs,downsizings,and __________. A)outsourcings B)resourcings C)firings D)closings E)transfers

Multiple Choice

Q 141

_______ are organizations of employees formed to protect and advance their members' interests by bargaining with management over job-related issues. A)Arbitration boards B)Labor unions C)Safety boards D)Mediation firms E)Right-to-work groups

Multiple Choice

Q 142

The ___________________ is the part of the labor-management agreement that states that employees who receive union benefits must join the union,or at least pay dues to it. A)givebacks clause B)agency clause C)closed shop clause D)union security clause E)union shop clause

Multiple Choice

Q 143

Bethany had a starring role in a film that was shot in her hometown of Baton Rouge,Louisiana.Though the Screen Actors Guild,an actors' union,exists in Louisiana,Bethany was not required to join it because of the state's ________ law. A)union security B)agency C)givebacks D)cost-of-living adjustment (COLA) E)right-to-work

Multiple Choice

Q 144

Typically the ________ in an union contract is tied to the U.S.Bureau of Labor Statistics' consumer price index (CPI). A)union security clause B)right-to-work clause C)agency clause D)givebacks clause E)cost-of-living adjustment (COLA)clause

Multiple Choice

Q 145

In 2011,when automakers began to create new jobs,new union hires were offered about half the pay ($14 an hour)that autoworkers were getting before ($28).This is an example of __________. A)union security clauses B)two-tier wage contracts C)cost-of-living adjustments D)incentives E)givebacks

Multiple Choice

Q 146

If a grievance procedure is not sufficient to solve a labor-management dispute,a binding decision may be sought from __________. A)a shop steward B)the AFL-CIO C)an arbitrator D)the EEOC E)a mediator

Multiple Choice

Q 147

Beginning with __________,a body of law has grown that requires organizations to provide employees with nonhazardous working conditions. A)the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)of 1970 B)Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 C)the Taft-Hartley Act D)establishment of the National Labor Relations Board E)the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

Multiple Choice

Q 148

Explain what human resource management is,state the purpose,and list the five steps in the strategic human resource management process.

Essay

Q 149

Explain the four major areas of human resource law and give an example of legislation pertaining to each.

Essay

Q 150

Define the two types of sexual harassment and provide an example of each.What are some steps you can follow in the workplace to avoid sexually harassing others?

Essay