Quiz 13: Basics of Procedural Coding

Urinalysis A) 81000 B) 81005 C) 82000 D) 81001

Suture of a recent wound on the eyelid A) 67938 B) 67930 C) 67950 D) 67961

Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent A) 32003 B) 32002 C) 32001 D) 32000

Breast reduction A) 19316 B) 19318 C) 19328 D) 19330

Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization A) 69399 B) 69401 C) 69400 D) 69405

Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal A) 71000 B) 71100 C) 71010 D) 71011

Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization A) 74710 B) 74740 C) 74742 D) 74775

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation A) 93000 B) 93015 C) 92960 D) 92950

Biopsy of external ear A) 69090 B) 69100 C) 69140 D) 69150

Serum folic acid A) 82735 B) 82760 C) 82746 D) 82803

Triglycerides A) 84476 B) 84477 C) 84478 D) 84479

Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever A) 86000 B) 86001 C) 86010 D) 86011

Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images A) 78201 B) 78205 C) 78220 D) 78223

New patient office visit, comprehensive history, examination, and moderate-complexity decision making A) 99201 B) 99202 C) 99203 D) 99204

Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making A) 99211 B) 99212 C) 99213 D) 99214

New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making A) 99201 B) 99202 C) 99203 D) 99204

Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes A) 99238 B) 99239 C) 99234 D) 99235

New patient, initial inpatient consultation A) 99251 B) 99252 C) 99253 D) 99254

New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making A) 99202 B) 99203 C) 99204 D) 99205

Initial hospital observation care, new patient A) 99217 B) 99218 C) 99219 D) 99220

Initial pediatric inpatient critical care A) 99296 B) 99295 C) 99294 D) 99293

Subsequent nursing facility care, comprehensive interval history and examination, high-complexity medical decisions A) 99310 B) 99309 C) 99308 D) 99307

New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making A) 99201 B) 99202 C) 99203 D) 99204

Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making A) 99304 B) 99305 C) 99306 D) 99307

Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making A) 99347 B) 99348 C) 99349 D) 99350

Basic metabolic panel A) 80048 B) 80050 C) 80051 D) 80053

Cyanide A) 82595 B) 82600 C) 82615 D) 82530

Psychoanalysis A) 90845 B) 90846 C) 90847 D) 90849

Acne surgery, removal of multiple milia, comedones, cysts, pustules A) 10080 B) 10061 C) 10040 D) 11001

Total splenectomy A) 38115 B) 38102 C) 38101 D) 38100

Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes? A) Category I codes B) Category II codes C) Category III codes D) Both A and B

An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions? A) Alphabetic index B) Tabular list C) Category subsection D) Both A and B

Which of the following sections uses the code range between 70000 and 79999? A) Anesthesia section B) Surgery section C) Radiology section D) Pathology section E) Medicine section

Codes with a plus sign are additional codes that must be used with which of the following? A) Category I codes B) Category II codes C) Category III codes D) Both A and B

Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following? A) Encounter form B) Progress notes C) Pathology report D) Radiology report E) All of the above

When searching the alphabetic index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following? A) Procedure or service B) Organ or anatomic site C) Condition, illness, or injury D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym

Which of the following levels of history includes a review of the systems that relate to the chief complaint? A) Problem-focused history B) Expanded problem-focused history C) Detailed history D) Comprehensive history

One time unit in anesthesia coding typically equals which of the following? A) 1 minute B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes

When wounds of more than one classification are repaired, list the less complicated repair as the primary procedure and the more complicated repair as the secondary procedure. When multiple wounds are repaired, add together the lengths of those in the same classification. A) Both statements are true. B) Both statements are false. C) The first statement is true; the second is false. D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Which of the following is a method of closed treatment of fractures? A) Without manipulation and/or traction B) With manipulation and/or traction C) Fixation device placed across fracture site D) Both A and B E) All of the above

Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections? A) Pathology B) Surgical C) Anesthesia D) Medicine

Which of the following HCPCS codes range from A4000 to A8999? A) Ambulance transport B) Medical supplies C) Surgical supplies D) Durable medical equipment E) Both B and C

Which of the following modifiers indicates a professional component and is used when a separate technician performs the service but the provider reviews the report and makes an accurate diagnosis? A) -50 B) -62 C) -26 D) -RT, -LT

Which of the following codes is assigned to an urgent care facility as the place of service? A) 01 B) 13 C) 20 D) 23

Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following? A) Patient with severe systemic disease B) Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life C) Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the procedure D) Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

__________ codes are separated and reported individually.

A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.

__________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.

Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.

Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.

Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.

__________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.

The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the __________.

A(n) __________ code indicates that additional or supplemental procedures carried out in addition to the primary procedure are needed.

The CPT is divided into eight sections.

Revised codes are not highlighted in the CPT manual.

Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.

It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.

A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.

Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.

The place of service never changes for physician billing.

Downcoding can increase reimbursements.

Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.