Quiz+ | Quiz 41: Nutrition and Metabolism

Q 1

Which of the following is true of metabolism? A) It involves both a physical and a chemical breakdown of foods. B) It occurs both inside and outside of cells. C) It involves synthesis and decomposition. D) Energy is released from the process of anabolism and catabolism.

Free

Multiple Choice

C

Q 2

Which of the following is not true of ATP? A) It is a high-energy substance. B) It is formed by the synthesis of ADP and phosphate. C) It releases energy when split. D) It cannot be recycled after it is broken down.

Free

Multiple Choice

D

Q 3

Catabolism is a _____ process involving the _____ of energy. A) synthesis; release B) decomposition; release C) synthesis; use D) decomposition; use

Free

Multiple Choice

B

Q 4

ADP is an abbreviation for: A) aniline diphosphate. B) adenine diphosphate. C) adenosine diphosphate. D) adenosine triphosphate.

Multiple Choice

Q 5

Which of the following is true of energy released by the breakdown of food substances? A) It is used to synthesize ATP. B) It is used to decompose ATP. C) It is changed to heat energy and used for cell functioning. D) It is used directly for cell functioning.

Multiple Choice

Q 6

In which of the following cells is glucose phosphorylation reversible? A) Heart B) Pancreas C) Kidney D) Muscle

Multiple Choice

Q 7

The cycle in which an ATP high-energy bond is broken to yield a phosphate group, ADP, and energy and then recombined to form ATP is called the: A) conversion of monosaccharides. B) ATP conversion. C) ATP/ADP system. D) metabolic pathway.

Multiple Choice

Q 8

The preferred energy fuel of the body is: A) fructose. B) glucose. C) amino acids. D) fatty acids.

Multiple Choice

Q 9

The process of splitting glycogen is called: A) glycogenesis. B) glycogenolysis. C) gluconeogenesis.

Multiple Choice

Q 10

Glucose phosphorylation is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? A) Amylase B) Glucokinase C) Phosphatase D) Phosphorylase

Multiple Choice

Q 11

Which of the following is the correct order of the body's energy fuel preference, starting with the first choice and ending with the third choice? A) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins B) Carbohydrates, proteins, fats C) Fats, carbohydrates, proteins D) Proteins, carbohydrates, fats

Multiple Choice

Q 12

Which of the following statements is not true? A) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of all human cells. B) Glycolysis requires the use of oxygen. C) Glycolysis breaks the chemical bonds in glucose molecules and thereby releases about 5% of the energy stored in them. D) Glycolysis is an essential process because it prepares glucose for the second step in catabolism, namely, the citric acid cycle.

Multiple Choice

Q 13

Which of the following is not true of glycolysis? A) It occurs in the mitochondria. B) Glucose is split into two pyruvic acid molecules. C) It is an anaerobic process. D) A specific enzyme catalyzes each step of the reaction.

Multiple Choice

Q 14

The Krebs cycle takes place in the: A) ribosome. B) cytoplasm. C) mitochondria. D) Golgi apparatus.

Multiple Choice

Q 15

Which of the following names is not a term used for the aerobic breakdown of food substances? A) Citric acid cycle B) Pyruvic acid cycle C) Krebs cycle D) Tricarboxylic acid cycle

Multiple Choice

Q 16

When the blood glucose level starts to decrease toward lower than normal: A) liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats to glucose. B) there is an increase in glycogenolysis. C) there is an increase in gluconeogenesis. D) all of the above occur.

Multiple Choice

Q 17

Which of the following types of cells contains phosphatase? A) Heart B) Brain C) Muscle D) Kidney

Multiple Choice

Q 18

Which of the following is most indicative of a normal blood sugar level? A) 60 to 80 mg/100 ml B) 80 to 100 mg/100 ml C) 110 to 125 mg/100 ml D) 135 to 150 mg/100 ml

Multiple Choice

Q 19

An increased blood sugar level stimulates which of the following to occur? A) Glycogenolysis B) Glycogenesis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycolysis

Multiple Choice

Q 20

The action of phosphatase enzyme is to catalyze the: A) combination of phosphate with glucose. B) release of glucose from phosphate. C) movement of glucose through the cell membrane. D) formation of ATP.

Multiple Choice

Q 21

The process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the: A) liver. B) skeletal muscle. C) brain. D) All of the above are correct.

Multiple Choice

Q 22

The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of: A) glycogenesis. B) gluconeogenesis. C) glycogenolysis. D) glycolysis.

Multiple Choice

Q 23

The process by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein: A) catabolism. B) anabolism. C) metabolism. D) transcription.

Multiple Choice

Q 24

Deamination, the splitting off of an amino group from an amino acid molecule to form a molecule of ammonia and one of keto acid, is the first step in protein: A) catabolism. B) anabolism. C) metabolism.

Multiple Choice

Q 25

Protein, or nitrogen, balance means protein: A) anabolism equals protein catabolism. B) anabolism exceeds protein catabolism. C) catabolism exceeds protein anabolism.

Multiple Choice

Q 26

Glucagon increases the activity of: A) phosphorylase. B) phosphatase. C) amylase. D) glucokinase.

Multiple Choice

Q 27

The enzyme that catalyzes glucose phosphorylation is: A) phosphorylase. B) phosphatase. C) amylase. D) glucokinase.

Multiple Choice

Q 28

A hormone that stimulates the conversion of proteins to glucose is: A) ACTH. B) growth hormone. C) thyroid hormone. D) TSH.

Multiple Choice

Q 29

ACTH affects metabolism by stimulating the release of: A) epinephrine. B) thyroxine. C) glucagon. D) glucocorticoids.

Multiple Choice

Q 30

The hormone capable of causing both protein anabolism and catabolism is: A) thyroid hormone. B) growth hormone. C) insulin. D) ACTH.

Multiple Choice

Q 31

The hormone that raises blood sugar level by causing a shift to fat catabolism is: A) ACTH. B) growth hormone. C) thyroid hormone. D) both A and B.

Multiple Choice

Q 32

Which of the following hormones is not hyperglycemic? A) Glucagon B) Glucocorticoids C) Insulin D) Epinephrine

Multiple Choice

Q 33

Diets high in saturated fats and cholesterol tend to increase the blood ____ concentration. A) HDL B) LDL C) VLDL

Multiple Choice

Q 34

Excess glucose and amino acids are converted to: A) fatty acids. B) glycerol. C) triglycerides. D) phospholipids.

Multiple Choice

Q 35

The hormone that has a tendency to inhibit fat catabolism is: A) ACTH. B) insulin. C) growth hormone. D) glucocorticoids.

Multiple Choice

Q 36

The most common lipids in the diet are: A) phospholipids. B) cholesterol. C) triglycerides. D) prostaglandins.

Multiple Choice

Q 37

All of the following hormones control lipid metabolism except: A) ACTH. B) glucocorticoids. C) epinephrine. D) insulin.

Multiple Choice

Q 38

Catabolism of fatty acids, without any other food product availability, causes the production of: A) glucose. B) ketone bodies. C) cholesterol. D) ADP.

Multiple Choice

Q 39

Which of the following stimulates protein synthesis? A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Glucagon D) ACTH

Multiple Choice

Q 40

Which of the following vitamins is not stored in significant amounts in the body and must be continually supplied to the diet? A) D B) K C) C D) E

Multiple Choice

Q 41

A deficiency in which of the following minerals leads to thyroid enlargement and a decrease in the metabolic rate? A) Potassium B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Phosphorus

Multiple Choice

Q 42

Metabolic rates are expressed as: A) normal or as a percentage above or below normal. B) the number of kilocalories of heat energy expended per hour or per day. C) kilocalories per pound of body weight. D) both A and B.

Multiple Choice

Q 43

The basal metabolic rate is higher in all of the following situations except: A) youth compared with adult. B) male compared with female. C) hypothermia compared with fever. D) excess of thyroid hormone compared with the normal level.

Multiple Choice

Q 44

An increase of body temperature of 1 degree Celsius will necessitate an increase in metabolism of approximately: A) 7%. B) 11%. C) 13%. D) 15%.

Multiple Choice

Q 45

The appetite center is located in the: A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) hypothalamus. D) cerebrum.

Multiple Choice

Q 46

A person who consumes 6000 kilocalories per day and burns only 5000 kilocalories per day would gain approximately ____ pounds over a 10-day period. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7

Multiple Choice

Q 47

Malnutrition includes a deficiency or imbalance of: A) water. B) food. C) vitamins. D) both B and C.

Multiple Choice

Q 48

If four molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would receive _____ molecules of ATP. A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16

Multiple Choice

Q 49

Which of the following is not a result of insulin deficiency? A) Low glycogen storage B) Slow glycogenesis C) Increased glucose catabolism D) All of the above are results of insulin deficiency.

Multiple Choice

Q 50

Which of the following substances is not transported as part of a chylomicron? A) Glucose B) Cholesterol C) Phospholipid D) All of the above are transported as part of a chylomicron.

Multiple Choice

Q 51

Which of the following vitamins can the body make? A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin K C) Biotin D) The body can make all of the above vitamins.

Multiple Choice

Q 52

All of the following are a result of lipid anabolism except: A) cholesterol. B) ketone bodies. C) triglycerides. D) prostaglandins.

Multiple Choice

Q 53

Which of the following minerals is important in blood cell production? A) Magnesium B) Iron C) Manganese D) Iodine

Multiple Choice

Q 54

Which of the following minerals is important in stomach acid production? A) Iron B) Calcium C) Chlorine D) Sodium

Multiple Choice

Q 55

Which of the following minerals is important in the production of ATP, RNA, and DNA? A) Phosphorus B) Iron C) Calcium D) Cobalt

Multiple Choice

Q 56

Which of the following minerals is important in bone formation, blood clotting, and nerve function? A) Phosphorus B) Iron C) Calcium D) Cobalt

Multiple Choice

Q 57

Glucose cannot be secreted from what cells once glucose phosphorylation has occurred in them? A) Muscle cells B) Kidney cells C) Liver cells D) Intestinal mucosa cells

Multiple Choice

Q 58

Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient? A) Carbohydrates B) Calcium C) Iron D) Neither B nor C is considered a macronutrient.

Multiple Choice

Q 59

Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? A) Zinc B) Iodine C) Sodium D) All of the above are considered micronutrients.

Multiple Choice

Q 60

A term for substances such as sodium, chloride, calcium, and potassium is: A) bulk nutrient. B) trace element. C) macromineral. D) both A and C.

Multiple Choice

Q 61

A term for substances such as iron, iodine, zinc, and manganese is: A) bulk nutrient. B) trace element. C) macromineral. D) both A and C.

Multiple Choice

Q 62

"Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes" is the textbook definition of: A) metabolism. B) anabolism. C) assimilation. D) catabolism.

Multiple Choice

Q 63

Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be absorbed directly into the cells? A) Cellulose B) Polysaccharides C) Disaccharides D) None of the above carbohydrates can be absorbed directly into the cells.

Multiple Choice

Q 64

Carbohydrates must be converted to which molecule before entering the citric acid cycle? A) Citric acid B) An acetyl group C) Coenzyme A (CoA) D) Pyruvic acid

Multiple Choice

Q 65

Which of the following is a characteristic of an unsaturated fat? A) It is a solid at room temperature. B) It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. C) It has at least one double bond. D) None of the above are characteristics of an unsaturated fat.

Multiple Choice

Q 66

Which of the following is a characteristic of a saturated fat? A) It is a solid at room temperature. B) It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. C) It has at least one double bond. D) Both A and B are characteristics of a saturated fat.

Multiple Choice

Q 67

Which of the following is a factor that reduces appetite? A) An increase in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus B) A decrease in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus C) A decrease in blood glucose D) None of the above factors has an effect on appetite.

Multiple Choice

Q 68

Which of the following is not part of "basal conditions"? A) Awake but lying down and not moving a muscle B) In a preabsorptive state C) In a warm, comfortable environment D) All of the above are part of basal conditions.

Multiple Choice

Q 69

What process has pyruvic acid and two gained ATPs as end products? A) Krebs cycle B) Anaerobic pathway C) Glycolysis D) Electron transport chain

Multiple Choice

Q 70

What process uses high-energy electrons and hydrogen carriers to release energy? A) Krebs cycle B) Anaerobic pathway C) Glycolysis D) Electron transport chain

Multiple Choice

Q 71

Which process produces lactic acid? (The Cori cycle helps repay the oxygen debt incurred by this process.) A) Krebs cycle B) Anaerobic pathway C) Glycolysis D) Electron transport chain

Multiple Choice

Q 72

Which process begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and hydrogen carrier molecules? A) Krebs cycle B) Anaerobic pathway C) Glycolysis D) Electron transport chain

Multiple Choice

Q 73

If 4 molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would gain _____ molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16

Multiple Choice

Q 74

Which statement best explains how orexigenic factors affect appetite? A) Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect feeding centers in the hypothalamus that decrease appetite. B) Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect feeding centers in the hypothalamus that stimulate appetite. C) Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus that function as a satiety center-meaning that impulses from these neurons decrease appetite so that we feel sated, or satisfied. D) Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus that function as a satiety center-meaning that impulses from these neurons increase appetite.

Multiple Choice

Q 75

Which statement best compares the processes of anabolism and catabolism? A) Both catabolism and anabolism take place outside of the cells in the GI tract. B) Catabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in so doing, releases energy from them. Anabolism does the opposite. C) Anabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in so doing, releases energy from them. Catabolism does the opposite. D) Anabolism occurs when nutrient molecules enter cells, undergo many chemical changes, and release ATP for energy; catabolism doesn't release ATP.

Multiple Choice

Q 76

Which statement explains how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body? A) Carbohydrates act as a fat sparer; therefore, fat goes through anabolism to reduce body fat. B) Certain carbohydrates called peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors metabolize fat. C) Fewer carbohydrates would result in fats moving out of adipose tissue and being catabolized. D) Fat catabolism is inversely related to the rate of carbohydrate anabolism.

Multiple Choice

Q 77

If a person's total metabolic rate (TMR) were 2400 calories, would his or her basal metabolic rate (BMR) be more or less than 2400 calories? A) Less because BMR is about 55% to 60% of the TMR. B) More because BMR is about 55% to 60% more than the TMR. C) Neither because BMR is equal to the TMR. D) Not enough information is given to determine the answer.

Multiple Choice

Q 78

Metabolism requires the use of enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions.

True False

Q 79

Heat released in catabolism is used as an energy source for cell functions.

True False

Q 80

All cells have basically the same metabolic rate.

True False

Q 81

Products derived from anabolism may differ from cell to cell.

True False

Q 82

All types of complex carbohydrates are broken down in the body into simpler carbohydrates before they are absorbed.

True False

Q 83

Intermediate products formed during the Krebs cycle are all acids.

True False

Q 84

Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the breakdown of ATP into ADP, phosphate, and energy in the presence of oxygen.

True False

Q 85

Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the joining of a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP.

True False

Q 86

At the end of the cytochrome electron transport process, oxygen accepts two electrons and combines with two hydrogen ions.

True False

Q 87

Energy released and used for forming ATP comes from the ionization of oxygen.

True False

Q 88

All cells have the ability to digest glycogen and release glucose into the blood.

True False

Q 89

An evening meal is eaten at 6 PM. Nothing more is eaten until 8 AM. Glycogenolysis alone can maintain a normal blood sugar level between the two meals.

True False

Q 90

In the electron transport system, electrons moving down the carrier chain release bursts of energy used to pump neutrons into the compartment between the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondrion.

True False

Q 91

The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of gluconeogenesis.

True False

Q 92

Whereas insulin tends to decrease the blood glucose level, glucagon tends to increase it.

True False

Q 93

Hormones that cause the blood level of glucose to rise are called hypoglycemic.

True False

Q 94

Glucagon accelerates glycogenolysis in liver cells.

True False

Q 95

Insulin comes from the beta cells of the pancreas.

True False

Q 96

Both epinephrine and glucagon accelerate liver and muscle glycogenolysis.

True False

Q 97

Incretins are released by the pancreas into the small intestines in response to high glucose concentration in the chyme.

True False

Q 98

A high level of HDLs is associated with a low incidence of heart disease.

True False

Q 99

Both fatty acids and glycerol enter at the Krebs cycle to be catabolized.

True False

Q 100

Lipoproteins are produced primarily in the liver.

True False

Q 101

Fats produce more than twice the amount of calories per gram than do carbohydrates.

True False

Q 102

Fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies in the liver.

True False

Q 103

Some essential acids are used in the formation of prostaglandins.

True False

Q 104

Essential fatty acids are not synthesized by the body and thus must be obtained from the diet.

True False

Q 105

Lipids are transported in blood as chylomicrons, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids.

True False

Q 106

Some essential acids are used in the formation of phospholipids.

True False

Q 107

High blood concentrations of LDLs are associated with atherosclerosis.

True False

Q 108

Deamination, a process that occurs in the liver, is the first step in the catabolism of proteins.

True False

Q 109

Ammonia is a byproduct of the catabolism of fatty acids.

True False

Q 110

Keto acids are formed in protein catabolism and can be oxidized in the citric acid cycle.

True False

Q 111

Proteins and fats are used primarily for catabolism.

True False

Q 112

Growth hormone is considered an anabolic hormone.

True False

Q 113

The metabolic rate refers to the amount of energy released by catabolism.

True False

Q 114

Waiting until after a 12- to 18-hour postabsorptive period had past would be necessary to obtain an accurate measure of the basal metabolic rate.

True False

Q 115

Men and women who are the same age and the same body size usually oxidize food at the same rate.

True False

Q 116

When the metabolic rate decreases, the cells use less oxygen than normal.

True False

Q 117

The basal metabolic rate usually constitutes about 85% to 90% of the total metabolic rate.

True False

Q 118

Carbohydrates and fats have a lower thermic effect than do proteins.

True False

Q 119

To maintain a constant body weight, caloric intake must equal caloric output.

True False

Q 120

Body weight increases when energy input is less than energy output.

True False

Q 121

The liver cells make some proteins for export.

True False

Q 122

Protein catabolism occurs at the ribosome.

True False

Q 123

Protein-poor diets, starvation, and wasting illnesses produce a negative nitrogen balance.

True False

Q 124

Strong evidence supports the usefulness of vitamin supplements for athletic performance.

True False

Q 125

Minerals function in various chemical reactions such as nerve conduction and contraction in muscle fibers.

True False

Q 126

It is correct to say that ATP functions as the universal biological energy currency.

True False

Q 127

Adenosine triphosphate has three high-energy phosphate bonds.

True False

Q 128

Nutrition can be defined in part as the process by which the organism ingests, digests, absorbs, transports, utilizes, and excretes food substances.

True False

Q 129

Nutrition can be explained most simply by describing it as the way your body uses food.

True False

Q 130

Assimilation is an intracellular event.

True False

Q 131

In the human body, anabolism would not be possible without catabolism.

True False

Q 132

Monosaccharides do not need to be digested but can be absorbed directly into the internal environment.

True False

Q 133

The cells add phosphate to glucose so it can pass through the cell membrane more easily.

True False

Q 134

Pyruvic acid has twice the number of carbon atoms as does glucose.

True False

Q 135

When the cell has sufficient oxygen, glycolysis does not occur.

True False

Q 136

The citric acid cycle begins with a molecule of pyruvic acid joining with a molecule of citric acid.

True False

Q 137

One of the roles of pyruvic acid in anaerobic respiration is to convert NADH back to NAD.

True False

Q 138

In the electron transport system, the energy in one FAD molecule is used to form two ATP molecules.

True False

Q 139

The level of glucose in the blood has an impact on the appetite center.

True False

Q 140

Lipids can be broken down by glycolysis.

True False

Q 141

Most vitamins are organic substances that act as coenzymes.

True False

Q 142

The basal metabolic rate is the smallest amount of energy needed to maintain life.

True False

Q 143

Adenosine diphosphate has only two high-energy phosphate bonds.

True False

Q 144

Nutrient anabolism is required to rebuild ADP into ATP.

True False

Q 145

Although cellulose has no nutrient value, it may be helpful in lowering the risk of some cancers.

True False

Q 146

Polysaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides have to be digested before they can be absorbed into the internal environment.

True False

Q 147

The monosaccharides fructose, glucose, and galactose are all equally useful to the cell.

True False

Q 148

ATP is useful for the long-term storage of chemical energy derived from nutrients.

True False

Q 149

The cell can use both NAD and FAD to transfer energy.

True False

Q 150

When NADH gains energy, it becomes NAD.

True False

Q 151

Carbohydrates are the body's first choice of energy. As such, they are used exclusively for catabolism.

True False

Q 152

Oxygen is required for the last step of glycolysis.

True False

Q 153

Glycolysis releases only about 25% of the energy stored in the bonds of a glucose molecule.

True False

Q 154

The process of glycolysis produces four molecules of ATP, but the cell gains only two molecules of ATP.

True False

Q 155

The end product of glycolysis, pyruvic acid, is the starting substance for the citric acid cycle.

True False

Q 156

The acetyl group is carried to the citric acid cycle by coenzyme A.

True False

Q 157

Most vegetables are an excellent source of essential amino acids.

True False

Q 158

Oxidative phosphorylation provides about 90% of the cell's ATP.

True False

Q 159

An end product of the anaerobic pathway of glucose is lactic acid.

True False

Q 160

One function of lactic acid is to convert NADH back to NAD.

True False

Q 161

Glycogenesis is an example of carbohydrate anabolism.

True False

Q 162

Because red blood cells contain no mitochondria, they must get all of their energy through oxidative phosphorylation.

True False

Q 163

Muscle cells are able to break down glycogen and release the resulting glucose back into the blood.

True False

Q 164

A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms.

True False

Q 165

Saturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature.

True False

Q 166

Unsaturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature.

True False

Q 167

Unsaturated fats have double bonds in their fatty acid chains.

True False

Q 168

Cholesterol levels are particularly high in foods such as liver and egg yolk.

True False

Q 169

One benefit of exercise is that it tends to increase blood levels of LDL.

True False

Q 170

The smell of acetone on the breath is a sign of ketosis.

True False

Q 171

Fatty acids are broken down by a process of beta oxidation.

True False

Q 172

The body has an almost equal ability to store fats and carbohydrates.

True False

Q 173

Just as there are essential amino acids, there are essential fatty acids.

True False

Q 174

Fats have a "carbohydrate-sparing" effect, or more correctly, a "carbohydrate-storing" effect.

True False

Q 175

Of the 20 amino acids used by the body, the body can synthesize 18.

True False

Q 176

Vitamin C has an antioxidant effect.

True False

Q 177

A larger individual has the same basal metabolic rate as a small person per square meter of body surface.

True False

Q 178

Both the appetite and the satiety center are found in the hypothalamus.

True False

Q 179

Caffeine can be used to lower the basal metabolic rate.

True False

Q 180

Both pregnancy and lactation can increase the basal metabolic rate.

True False

Q 181

Thyroid hormone can promote protein anabolism or protein catabolism depending on the circumstances.

True False

Q 182

Copper is an important mineral in the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

True False

Q 183

Calcium can be called both a macronutrient and a macromineral.

True False

Q 184

Iodine can be called a trace element and a micromineral.

True False

Q 185

Both pyruvic acid and lactic acid can be produced from the breakdown of glucose.

True False

Q 186

In the anaerobic pathway, glucose can be converted to lactic acid without the use of oxygen. The lactic acid can then enter the citric acid cycle.

True False

Q 187

There are lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids that are needed by the body but cannot be made by the body. Because of this, they are called "essential" and must be included in the diet.

True False

Q 188

ATP can be broken down and rebuilt in a process called the ATP/ADP cycle.

True False

Q 189

Glycolysis is unique in carbohydrate metabolism in that it is the only process that does not occur in the mitochondrion.

True False

Q 190

The citric acid cycle, the tricarboxylic acid cycle, and the Krebs cycle all refer to the same process.

True False

Q 191

The Cori cycle is another term for the electron transport chain.

True False

Q 192

The Cori cycle rebuilds glucose from pyruvic acid to pay off the oxygen debt.

True False

Q 193

The group of hormones called incretins act to increase the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, which would raise the blood level of glucose.

True False

Q 194

Both vitamins and minerals act as coenzymes for the body.

True False

Q 195

The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their appetite.

True False

Q 196

You would expect to find very little fructose in the general circulation even after a meal that included fruit.

True False

Q 197

The citric acid cycle is important because it produces more ATP than any other process in carbohydrate catabolism.

True False

Q 198

The conversion of NADH back to NAD so that if can function in anaerobic respiration is called the Cori cycle.

True False

Q 199

Only muscles store glycogen.

True False

Q 200

The amount of glycogen being made must be regulated because too much glycogen can upset the osmotic balance in the cell.

True False

Q 201

When the blood glucose levels rise to 80 to 90 mg/dl, it stimulates the formation of glycogen in cells.

True False

Q 202

Epinephrine stimulates glycogenesis in the cells as part of the "fight-or-flight" response.

True False

Q 203

Foods coming from plants do not contain cholesterol.

True False

Q 204

Six or seven hours after eating, there would be very few chylomicrons in the blood.

True False

Q 205

Free fatty acids released into the blood from adipose tissue are not actually free at all; they are attached to albumin in the blood.

True False

Q 206

The body has the ability to make two vitamins: vitamins D and K.

True False

Q 207

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Lipoprotein that is associated with low incidence of heart disease when present in high levels

Short Answer

Q 208

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -A group of hormones that stimulates the pancreas to release insulin

Short Answer

Q 209

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Process that begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and NADH

Short Answer

Q 210

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Process that forms glycogen that can be stored by muscle and liver cells

Short Answer

Q 211

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Lipoprotein that is associated with high incidence of coronary artery disease when present in high levels

Short Answer

Q 212

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Process that rebuilds lactic acid formed under anaerobic conditions and transfers it back into glucose

Short Answer

Q 213

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -First process in carbohydrate metabolism; occurs in the cytoplasm

Short Answer

Q 214

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Hormone, released by fat-storing cells, that seems to regulate satiety

Short Answer

Q 215

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Citric acid cycle b.Glycogenesis c.LDL d.Glycolysis e.Leptin f.Electron transport system g.HDL h.Incretins i.Cori cycle -Process that moves high-energy electrons from cytochrome to cytochrome and produces ATP and forms water

Short Answer

Q 216

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Anabolism b.Catabolism c.Metabolism d.Nutrition e.Assimilation -Energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules

Short Answer

Q 217

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Anabolism b.Catabolism c.Metabolism d.Nutrition e.Assimilation -Energy-releasing process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules

Short Answer

Q 218

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Anabolism b.Catabolism c.Metabolism d.Nutrition e.Assimilation -The use the body makes of foods after they have been digested, absorbed, and circulated to cells

Short Answer

Q 219

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Anabolism b.Catabolism c.Metabolism d.Nutrition e.Assimilation -Evaluation of food and drink (nutrient) requirements for normal body functions

Short Answer

Q 220

Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a.Anabolism b.Catabolism c.Metabolism d.Nutrition e.Assimilation -Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes

Short Answer

Q 221

Explain why the mitochondria are referred to as power plants.

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Q 222

Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation.

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Q 223

Explain how the lack of oxygen would inhibit the Krebs cycle.

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Q 224

Show in an equation form the end products of glucose catabolism. Use one molecule of glucose and six molecules of oxygen to begin the equation.

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Q 225

Define the terms hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. Identify various conditions in which each may occur.

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Q 226

List and explain factors that can influence BMR.

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Q 227

Ed has a bet with Bob that he can lose 5 pounds in 2 weeks (14 days). He increases his activity so he is burning 2500 calories a day. He has reduced his caloric intake to 1800 calories a day. How much weight will Ed lose in 14 days? Does he win the bet?

Essay

Q 228

Explain the difference between a macronutrient and a micronutrient. Give several examples of each.

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Q 229

Explain the terms metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism. Give an example of an anabolic process and a catabolic process.

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Q 230

What is ATP and why is it important to the functioning of the cell? Describe the ATP/ADP cycle or system.

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Q 231

What are the types of carbohydrates ingested as food? What are the sources of each type? What role does cellulose play in the functioning of the digestive system?

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Q 232

Explain the process of glycolysis. What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis?

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Q 233

Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. What is the starting material and what are the end products? In what form is most of the energy produced?

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Q 234

Explain the electron transport system. How is ATP produced in the mitochondria?

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Q 235

Explain what occurs in the anaerobic pathway. What is the Cori cycle? What is meant by the oxygen debt?

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Q 236

What is glycogenesis? What cells in the body are able to store large amounts of glycogen?

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Q 237

Name and explain the role of hormones in the regulation of glucose. What are incretins and what are their effects in the body?

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Q 238

Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats.

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Q 239

Name and describe the three types of lipoproteins found in the blood. What is the effect of different types of lipoproteins on health?

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Q 240

What is the usual function of vitamins? Name three vitamins and explain their function.

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Q 241

Explain three functions that minerals have in the body. Name three minerals and explain their function.

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Q 242

Basal metabolic rate assumes three "basal" conditions; name and explain them.

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Q 243

Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate.

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Q 244

Most of the illegal anabolic steroids used by athletes contain some form of testosterone. Why are these steroids so effective in building muscle mass?

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Quiz 41: Nutrition and Metabolism

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