Quiz 22: Lymphatic System and Immunity

The lymphatic system is involved in A) lipid absorption from the digestive tract. B) transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver. C) maintenance of pH in the tissues. D) production of erythrocytes. E) protein metabolism.

The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by A) adding lymph to GI tract secretions. B) returning interstitial fluid to the plasma. C) transporting lymph from tissues to the liver. D) carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted. E) actively absorbing fluid from the blood.

Lacteals are A) a type of lymphocyte. B) a nonspecific defense. C) lymphatic vessels in the lining of the small intestine. D) the sinuses inside a lymph node. E) germinal centers.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? A) Defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances. B) Aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells. C) Maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood. D) Absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract.

What is the purpose of lacteals? A) Drain blood from the spleen. B) Absorb fluid from capillary beds. C) Absorb lipids from the digestive tract. D) Absorb solutes from interstitial spaces.

Lymph containing a high lipid content is called A) chyle. B) chyme. C) lacteal. D) interstitial fluid.

The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that A) the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues. B) the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow. C) lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid. D) lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries. E) lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not.

Lymph capillaries are found in the A) epidermis. B) cornea. C) bone marrow. D) central nervous system. E) dermis.

Structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to A) veins. B) arteries. C) arterioles. D) capillaries. E) venules.

How do lymphatic capillaries differ form blood capillaries? A) Lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane. B) Simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments. C) Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries. D) Lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces. E) All of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries.

What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph? A) over-lapping endothelial cells B) valves C) no basement membrane D) thin walls

Lymph movement is assisted by A) contraction of skeletal muscle. B) contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel. C) pressure changes in the thorax during respiration. D) compression of lymphatic vessels. E) All of these choices are correct.

A woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. Which of the following might occur? A) Cisterna chyli flow increases. B) The thoracic duct would be severed. C) Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm. D) Lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm. E) Lymph drainage would be affected in both legs.

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the A) abdomen. B) upper part of the body. C) right arm, right chest, and right side of head. D) right side of the body. E) left arm, left chest, and left side of head.

The thoracic duct drains lymph into the A) left subclavian vein. B) right subclavian vein. C) right internal jugular vein. D) left brachiocephalic vein. E) left subclavian artery.

Which of the following organs does NOT contain lymphatic tissue? A) liver B) spleen C) lingual tonsils D) thymus E) pharyngeal tonsils.

Lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibers that functions to A) produce lymphocytes. B) produce capsules around lymph nodes. C) attack microorganisms. D) line the walls of lymphatic vessels. E) trap microorganisms.

Nonencapsulated lymphatic tissue called MALT includes all of the following except: A) tonsils. B) Peyer patches. C) lymph nodes. D) diffuse lymphatic tissue.

Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the A) lymph nodes. B) spleen and tonsils. C) appendix and tonsils. D) small intestine and appendix.

Lymph nodules are A) small, bean-shaped structures. B) the site of erythrocyte production. C) located in the loose connective tissue of the digestive system. D) composed of an outer cortex and inner medulla. E) connected together in a series.

Adenoids are enlarged A) lingual tonsils. B) pharyngeal tonsils. C) palatine tonsils. D) cervical lymph nodes. E) axillary lymph nodes.

Tonsils A) increase in size in adults. B) are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities. C) provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities. D) contain red pulp and white pulp. E) are not functional in children.

The palatine tonsils A) interfere with breathing when enlarged. B) are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx. C) are located superior to the palate. D) are really lymph nodes in disguise. E) are located in the nasopharynx.

Bean-shaped lymphatic organs found along lymphatic vessels are called A) lymph nodes. B) medullary cords. C) cisterna chyli. D) trabeculae. E) lymph nodules.

Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called A) cortex. B) capsule. C) reticulum. D) trabeculum. E) basement membrane.

Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes. A) trabecular cells B) germinal cells C) macrophages. D) lymphocytes E) plasma cells

Germinal centers are the sites of A) increased blood flow to the lymph nodes. B) fluid production. C) increased flow of lymph from infected tissues. D) entrance of lymph into lymph nodes. E) proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

Lymph exits a lymph node via the A) efferent lymphatic vessels. B) afferent lymphatic vessels. C) cortical sinuses. D) trabeculae. E) lymphatic duct.

The only structures that filter lymph is/are the A) tonsils. B) spleen. C) lymph nodes. D) thymus.

The spleen A) filters damaged red blood cells from the blood. B) changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes. C) is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death. D) produces several different hormones with unknown function. E) has additional digestive functions.

Which of the following statements concerning the spleen is true? A) Splenic arteries enter the organ at the periarterial sheath. B) The spleen can act as a blood reservoir. C) The white pulp is associated with the venous supply. D) The red pulp has trabeculae. E) Humans can not survive without a spleen.

The white pulp of the spleen A) contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response. B) filters lymph as it flows through the spleen. C) destroys defective red blood cells. D) stimulates immune responses, filter lymph, and destroys defective red blood cells.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the thymus gland? A) The thymus gland lacks a capsule. B) The thymus gland contains many reticular fibers. C) The thymus gland decreases in size after age 60. D) Lymphocytes are found only in the medulla of the thymus gland. E) The thymus increases in size with aging.

What is the function of thymosin? A) destroys damaged red blood cells B) destroys damaged white blood cells C) activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes D) maturation of T-cells

When innate immunity is activated, A) each exposure is very specific. B) previous exposures are remembered. C) each exposure produces the same response. D) each exposure increases the strength of the immune response. E) the second exposure does not produce a response.

Which of the following is true of adaptive immunity? A) It is present at birth. B) Previous encounters with the foreign substance does not change the response. C) The second response is faster and stronger than the first response. D) Responses are general, not specific.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity? A) It has memory. B) You are born with it. C) It has specificity. D) Acquired throughout your lifetime.

Which of the following characteristics is/are most consistent with adaptive immunity? A) constant response to each exposure B) specificity C) memory D) increased response to second and subsequent exposures E) specificity, memory and increased response to second and subsequent exposures

Which of the following would be classified as an innate physical barrier? A) activation of complement B) phagocytosis of invading organisms C) washing action of tears and saliva D) inflammation E) release of histamine

Complement proteins A) can form holes in the plasma membrane of target cells. B) are on the surface of macrophages. C) are hormones found in the blood. D) may cause the release of interferon. E) do not attract neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, or eosinophils.

Which of the following most accurately describes how foreign substances can activate complement? A) Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway. B) Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it. C) Foreign proteins bind to C1 and activate it. D) Foreign proteins are phagocytized by macrophages and directly activate complement. E) Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action? A) produces cytokines B) opsonization C) attracts other immune cells to the site of infection D) forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis

A surface chemical that prevents microbial growth is A) histamine. B) leukotriene. C) sebum. D) kinin. E) interferon.

A protein that helps to protect the body against viral infections is A) complement. B) interferon. C) lysozyme. D) histamine. E) kinin.

Interferon A) directly attacks viruses. B) protects cells that have been invaded by viruses. C) increases vascular permeability. D) is not produced by most cells. E) is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection.

Interferon production is stimulated by A) a viral infection. B) the complement cascade. C) antigen-presenting cells. D) degranulation of basophils. E) inflammation.

The movement of leukocytes to the source of certain chemicals is called A) chemotaxis. B) opsonization. C) chemoreception. D) phagocytosis. E) hemolysis.

Lysozyme is A) an enzyme found in body fluids that destroys certain bacteria. B) a type of antibody that attracts a phagocyte. C) a cytokine produced by T cells. D) an antigen. E) a bacteria.

The two major types of phagocytic cells are A) neutrophils and monocytes. B) neutrophils and macrophages. C) monocytes and macrophages. D) lymphocytes and monocytes. E) eosinophils and T cells.

Which of the following statements concerning neutrophils and macrophages is false? A) They both exhibit chemotaxis. B) They both move by amoeboid motion. C) Both are capable of phagocytosis. D) Both release histamine when activated. E) Both can squeeze between cells.

Macrophages A) are derived from basophils. B) reduce the inflammatory response. C) are responsible for most phagocytic activity in the late stages of an infection. D) produce cytokines that aid in the destruction of antigens. E) are the first at the site of infection.

Histamine and leukotrienes are released from A) basophils and mast cells. B) eosinophils and basophils. C) neutrophils and lymphocytes. D) macrophages and microphages. E) phagocytes.

In a patient experiencing a parasitic worm infection, which of the following immune cells will greatly increase in number? A) mast cells B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) neutrophils E) basophils

Which of the following is usually the first cell type to leave the blood and enter infected tissues? A) eosinophil B) lymphocyte C) monocyte D) natural killer cell E) neutrophil

Natural Killer (NK) cells A) a type of macrophage. B) are a type of plasma cell. C) secrete enzymes that kill tumor or virus-infected cells. D) are derived from B cells. E) promote inflammation.

The inflammatory response A) prevents the spread of an infection. B) stimulates erythrocytes to leave the blood. C) delays healing of damaged tissues. D) depresses immunity. E) is harmful and should be immediately reversed.

The redness and heat seen in an inflamed area are the result of A) vasoconstriction. B) increased blood flow to the area. C) phagocyte mobilization. D) production of interferon. E) a reddish substance released by erythrocytes.

During the inflammatory response, A) vasoconstriction occurs. B) chemical mediators are released. C) vascular permeability is decreased. D) neutrophil production is depressed. E) blood flow is reduced.

The key signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT A) jaundice. B) pain. C) swelling. D) redness. E) heat.

Which of the following substances causes increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis, and vasodilation? A) histamine B) protaglandins C) leukotrienes D) complement E) cytokines

In systemic inflammation, pyrogens A) decrease phagocytosis. B) decrease vasodilation. C) increase neutrophil production. D) stimulate fever production. E) are chemotaxic factors.

Circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include A) increased viscosity of the blood. B) decreased vascular permeability. C) increased vascular permeability. D) decreased blood flow to the area. E) vasoconstriction.

Adaptive immunity is stimulated by A) antigens. B) histamines. C) antibodies. D) complement. E) plasma proteins.

Transplanted tissues and organs that contain _________ _________ are rejected by the body. A) self-antigens B) foreign antigens C) foreign antibodies D) self-antibodies E) plasma proteins

____ are part of cell-mediated immunity while ____ are part of antibody-mediated immunity. A) B cells, NK cells B) Antibodies, antigens C) T cells, B cells D) Macrophages, antibodies E) Neutrophils, monocytes

A small molecule that can cause an allergic reaction is a/an A) T cell. B) B cell. C) antibody. D) hapten.

______ determines which B-cell is cloned in an antibody-mediated response. A) The antibody B) The antigen C) A macrophage D) Complement E) A neutrophil

Which of the following is a subpopulation of T cells? A) cytotoxic B) antigenic C) cytokinetic D) basophilic E) antitoxic

The effects of cell-mediated immunity are the result of activities of A) B cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) macrophages. D) dendritic cells. E) helper T cells.

The thymus is where ____ mature and become functional immune cells. A) pre-T cells B) pre-B cells C) macrophages D) null cells E) C cells.

The process of eliminating those lymphocytes that react or respond against self-antigens is called A) phagocytosis. B) inflammation. C) negative selection. D) activation of complement. E) natural selection.

Positive selection of lymphocytes refers to the A) processing of an antigen by a macrophage. B) proliferation of natural killer cells. C) production of antigen-specific antibodies. D) survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are capable of an immune response. E) replication of memory cells.

Primary lymphatic organs include the A) tonsils and spleen. B) thymus and lymph nodes. C) red bone marrow and thymus. D) red bone marrow and lymph nodes.

Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphatic organ? A) spleen B) lymph node C) lymphatic nodule D) thymus gland

What areas of an antigen are recognized by lymphocytes so that they can respond? A) major histocompatibility complexes B) antigenic determinants C) T-cell receptors D) epitopes E) Both antigenic determinants and epitopes are correct.

The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class molecules A) are only found on B cells. B) are found in the nucleus of cells. C) allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells. D) are lipoproteins on cell surfaces. E) do not attach to plasma membranes.

Different T-cell receptors can respond to different antigens because of different A) variable regions in the structure of the receptors. B) epitopes in the receptor's structure. C) selection processes. D) complement binding sites in the receptors. E) antigenic determinants.

Lymphocyte activation can occur in several ways. However, in all cases A) lymphocytes must recognize an antigen. B) helper T cells are activated first and they then stimulate other cells. C) antigen-presenting cells process the antigen and present it to the lymphocytes. D) cytokines released by the antigen stimulate the lymphocyte response. E) antigens must be able to recognize the lymphocytes.

The MHC class I antigen complex displays a foreign antigen on the cell surface. This prompts the immune system to destroy A) B cell clones. B) extracellular antigens. C) the displaying cell. D) mature red blood cells. E) the virus inside the cell, but not the cell.

MHC class II molecules are found on A) neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages. B) dendritic cells, B cells, and helper T cells. C) monocytes, helper T cells, and neutrophils. D) B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells. E) B cells, C cells and D cells.

Cells that process antigen and present antigens to other immune cells are called A) plasma cells. B) antigen-presenting cells. C) B receptor cells. D) T suppressor cells. E) antibodies.

Frequently, several different signals or molecules are needed in order to produce an immune response by a B cell or T cell. The second signal in this process is called A) opsonization. B) copresentation. C) complement activation. D) antigen processing. E) costimulation.

Which of the following cytokines is mismatched? A) perforin - makes a hole in target cell membranes B) alpha interferon - prevents viral replication C) lymphotoxin - costimulator of T cells D) interleukin 4 - plays a role in allergic reactions E) TNF - activates macrophages and promotes fever

T helper cells possess a glycoprotein called CD4. This molecule binds to A) MHC class I molecules. B) MHC class II molecules. C) MHC-CD8 antigens. D) MHC-CD28 antigens. E) Interleukin-1 receptor.

Which of the following might occur after a helper T cell is presented with a processed antigen and costimulated? A) Helper T cells destroy the presenting cell. B) Helper T cells produce antibodies. C) Helper T cells release interleukins that stimulate B cells to clone. D) Helper T cells stop division. E) Helper T cells lyse.

Lymphocyte proliferation begins by increasing the number of A) macrophages. B) B cells. C) T suppressor cells. D) helper T cells. E) cytotoxic T cells.

Once cytotoxic T cells are produced, which of the following is (are) consistent with their ability to attack intracellular viruses? A) Most nucleated cells process antigens through the MHC class I mechanisms. B) Viral antigens are processed by the MHC class I mechanism and are presented to the cell surface. C) Cytotoxic T cells bind to MHC class I processed antigens. D) Cytotoxic T cells bound to the MHC class I processed antigens release lymphokines. E) All of these choices are correct.

Tolerance is a state of A) hypersensitivity. B) transplant rejection. C) unresponsiveness to antigens. D) responding to self-antigens. E) non-recognition of antigens.

Tolerance to antigens is induced by A) blocking costimulation. B) stimulating interleukin 2 production. C) preventing suppressor T cell proliferation. D) promoting the release of cytokines. E) stimulating helper T cell division.

Antibodies are produced by A) cytotoxic T cells stimulated by helper T cells. B) helper T cells stimulated by various cytokines. C) B cells that differentiate to form plasma cells. D) natural killer cells as they lyse cancer cells. E) the red bone marrow.

Antibodies A) play a large role in cell-mediated immunity. B) are produced by both T and B cells. C) are composed of four light and four heavy polypeptide chains. D) are not specific, but act generally. E) have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant.

The immunoglobulin that is often the first antibody produced in response to an antigen is A) IgD. B) IgA. C) IgM. D) IgE. E) IgG.

Antibodies A) activate antigens. B) may initiate inflammation and enhance phagocytosis. C) are proteins produced by T helper cells. D) are needed for costimulation. E) have memory.

Which of the following is correctly matched? A) IgA - found in saliva and tears B) IgD - can cross the placenta C) IgG - first to challenge the antigen D) IgM - antigen-binding receptor on B cells E) IgE - transfusion reactions

Antibodies secreted in breast milk A) are IgG antibodies. B) are IgA antibodies. C) provide natural active adaptive immunity. D) include the cytokine interleukin 2. E) promote inflammation.

As a result of opsonization, A) holes are produced in target cell membranes. B) organ transplant rejection occurs. C) antigens are more susceptible to phagocytosis. D) antigens clump together. E) inflammation, chemotaxis, and lysis occur.

B-cells A) are a subset of T cells. B) when activated become plasma cells and produce antibodies. C) are responsible for forming all the body's memory cells. D) suppress the activity of T cells. E) mature in the thymus.

Several days after an initial contact with an antigen, antibody blood levels increases. This is a A) primer response. B) primary response. C) precipitating response. D) principle response. E) cascade response.

The secondary or memory response A) occurs after the primary response has activated NK cells. B) provides better protection than the primary response. C) is less effective in antibody production. D) produces different antibodies than those produced in the primary immune response. E) does not protect the body after the first exposure.

The type of cell responsible for the secondary response is a A) mast cell. B) macrophage. C) memory cell. D) red blood cell. E) monocyte.

In the cell-mediated immune response, T cells secrete ____, which activate additional components of the immune system. A) antibodies B) complement C) collagen D) cytokines E) histamine

Which is the proper order of events in cell-mediated immunity? (1) cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells (2) antigen presented to T lymphocyte (3) activation of T lymphocytes (4) cytotoxic T cells attack target cells A) 2, 3, 4, 1 B) 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 2, 3, 1, 4 D) 3, 2, 4, 1 E) 1, 2, 3, 4,

Cytotoxic T cells A) produce antibodies for general circulation. B) attach to the surface of cells causing them to lyse. C) cause precipitation of antigens. D) have IgG antibodies on their cell membranes. E) are destroyed after contact killing.

Cell-mediated immunity would be least effective against A) tumor cells. B) virally infected cells. C) intracellular bacteria. D) extracellular antigens. E) intracellular parasites.

The intense inflammatory response seen in poison ivy is due to activity of the A) cytotoxic T cells. B) plasma cells. C) delayed hypersensitivity cells. D) macrophages. E) mast cells.

Stimulating the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells to destroy cancer cells is an example of A) immunotherapy. B) immunocompetence. C) tolerance. D) passive artificial acquired immunity. E) passive natural acquired immunity.

The HIV virus infects A) B cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) suppressor T cells. D) helper T cells. E) monocytes.

The HIV virus can be transmitted A) only from males to other males. B) during unprotected sexual intercourse. C) by coughing or sneezing. D) by contact with people at work. E) by hugging an infected child.

The most rapidly increasing group of AIDS patients is ____ who have had sexual contact with an infected person. A) homosexual males B) hemophiliacs C) heterosexual males and females D) homosexual females E) bisexual males

Which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus? A) use of a condom during intercourse B) heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusion C) use of contaminated needles D) reduction in the number of sexual partners E) abstinence

Which of the following is false? A) The HIV virus binds to the CD4 molecule of host cells. B) There is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT. C) Most manifestations of AIDS are explained by the loss of helper T cell functions. D) Once infected by the virus, a person will test positive for HIV antibodies. E) In order for HIV to replicate, viral RNA is used to make viral DNA, which is inserted into the host cell's DNA.

Several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. When a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce A) active natural immunity. B) active artificial immunity. C) passive natural immunity. D) passive artificial immunity. E) active passive immunity.

A traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected (usually be an animal bite) with rabies is classified as A) active natural immunity. B) active artificial immunity. C) passive natural immunity. D) passive artificial immunity. E) passive active immunity.

Active natural immunity occurs when A) antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her fetus. B) antibodies are injected into a host. C) an individual develops a disease. D) a person is vaccinated. E) antibodies are passed in breast milk.

Transfusing a person with plasma proteins from a person or an animal that has been actively immunized against a specific antigen provides A) active immunity. B) passive immunity. C) no immunity. D) autoimmunity. E) natural immunity.

If you receive an immunization for hepatitis B and produce antibodies against the hepatitis B virus, you have developed what type of adaptive immunity? A) active natural immunity B) active artificial immunity C) passive natural immunity D) passive artificial immunity E) active passive immunity

The type of adaptive immunity that provides immediate protection against disease when there is no time for the person to develop their own immunity is called _____ immunity. A) active natural B) active artificial C) passive innate D) passive artificial E) active immediate

A child is born with a congenital disease that results in total loss of B cells. Which of the following would be a consequence of this immunodeficiency? A) no lymphokine production B) lack of antibody formation C) nonfunctioning complement system D) inability to form any type of memory cell E) no antigens on the cells

An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called A) immunization. B) an innate immune response. C) hypersensitivity. D) excess immunity. E) tolerance.

In immunodeficiency diseases, A) the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens. B) inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur. C) IgE mediates a localized reaction. D) serum sickness results. E) immune surveillance occurs.

Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity? A) Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced. B) Fewer antibodies are produced. C) Onset of autoimmune diseases is unchanged. D) T cell numbers remain constant but they are less functional.

Match the term with the appropriate description. A. lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation B. lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall C. rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus D. areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide E. a chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation -Peyer's patches

Match the term with the appropriate description. A. lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation B. lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall C. rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus D. areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide E. a chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation -thymic corpuscles

Match the term with the appropriate description. A. lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation B. lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall C. rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus D. areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide E. a chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation -germinal centers

Match the term with the appropriate description. A. lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation B. lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall C. rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus D. areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide E. a chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation -histamine

Match the term with the appropriate description. A. lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation B. lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall C. rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus D. areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide E. a chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation -prostaglandins

Match the type of cell with its function. A. first cell to enter infected tissue B. will become macrophage in tissue C. lyses tumor and virus-infected cells D. cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection E. nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation -monocyte

Match the type of cell with its function. A. first cell to enter infected tissue B. will become macrophage in tissue C. lyses tumor and virus-infected cells D. cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection E. nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation -mast cell

Match the type of cell with its function. A. first cell to enter infected tissue B. will become macrophage in tissue C. lyses tumor and virus-infected cells D. cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection E. nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation -natural killer cell

Match the type of cell with its function. A. first cell to enter infected tissue B. will become macrophage in tissue C. lyses tumor and virus-infected cells D. cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection E. nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation -eosinophil

Match the type of cell with its function. A. first cell to enter infected tissue B. will become macrophage in tissue C. lyses tumor and virus-infected cells D. cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection E. nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation -neutrophil

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -cells that provide this immunity are lymphocytes.

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -cells mature in thymus gland

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -antibodies produced

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -B cells

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -provide protection against extracellular antigens

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -organ rejection

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -memory cells

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -tears and saliva

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -ability to resist damage from foreign substances such as microorganisms and harmful chemicals

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -origin of cells is red bone marrow

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -histamine produced

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -neutrophils and macrophages

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -cytokines produced

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -no hypersensitivity

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity. A. innate immunity B. antibody-mediated immunity C. cell-mediated immunity D. both antibody and cell-mediated immunity E. innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity -protection against intracellular antigens

Match the term or description to the type of hypersensitivity. A. immediate hypersensitivity B. delayed hypersensitivity -atopy

Match the term or description to the type of hypersensitivity. A. immediate hypersensitivity B. delayed hypersensitivity -anaphylaxis

Match the term or description to the type of hypersensitivity. A. immediate hypersensitivity B. delayed hypersensitivity -mediated by T cells

Match the term or description to the type of hypersensitivity. A. immediate hypersensitivity B. delayed hypersensitivity -immune complex disease

Match the term or description to the type of hypersensitivity. A. immediate hypersensitivity B. delayed hypersensitivity -allergic reaction

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function. A. quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure B. after activitaion, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell C. produces antibodies D. destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines E. activates B and effector T cells -cytotoxic T cell

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function. A. quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure B. after activitaion, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell C. produces antibodies D. destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines E. activates B and effector T cells -plasma cell

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function. A. quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure B. after activitaion, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell C. produces antibodies D. destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines E. activates B and effector T cells -B cell

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function. A. quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure B. after activitaion, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell C. produces antibodies D. destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines E. activates B and effector T cells -helper T cell

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function. A. quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure B. after activitaion, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell C. produces antibodies D. destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines E. activates B and effector T cells -memory T cell

All of the following are interactions between cell mediated immunity and innate immunity, except A) Macrophage of innate immunity present antigens to helper T cells. B) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate inflammation. C) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate phagocytosis. D) Macrophages of innate immunity present antigens to cytotoxic T cells.

All of the followng are components of lymph, except A) water. B) ions. C) nutrients. D) hormones. E) red blood cells.

The periarterial lymphatic sheath and the lymphatic nodules are part of the red pulp of the spleen.

Mucosal associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) are: A) aggregates of macrophages located in the intestines. B) clusters of splenocytes located in the lamina propria of mucous membranes. C) clumps of mucous lining the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract. D) aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes.

Describe the wall of lymphatic capillaries. A) Thin-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells B) Thin-walled, with tightly joined cuboidal cells C) Thick-walled, with overlapping squamous cells D) Thick-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells E) Thin-walled, with overlapping squamous cells

All of the following lack lymphatic capillaries, except A) the nervous system. B) the bone marrow. C) the epidermis. D) cartilage. E) skeletal muscle.

Defense mechanisms that respond at the same speed and efficiency upon repeated exposure are classified as ______ immunity and defense mechanisms that increase in speed and strength upon repeated exposure are classified as ______ immunity. A) innate; non-specific B) adaptive; innate C) specific; innate D) innate; adaptive

Interferons, interleukins, and lymphokines are examples of: A) chemical barriers. B) immune cells. C) immunoglobulins. D) mast cells. E) cytokines.

Activation of the complement cascade via the alternative pathway involves the spontaneous activation of the complement protein _____________. A) C1 B) C2 C) C4 D) C5 E) C3

All of the following are the signs and symptoms of local inflammation, except A) redness. B) edema. C) heat. D) pain. E) hemorrhage.

During the development of lymphocytes, some pre-T and pre-B cells survive and develop into cells capable of an immune response, this is referred to as ______ selection. However some cells are suppressed from responding to self antigens, this is referred to as ______ selection. A) negative; positive B) neutral; negative C) negative; neutral D) neutral; positive E) positive; negative

An MHC class II/antigen complex on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell (APC) binds to a T-cell receptor. What results from this interaction? A) Other immune cells are inhibited B) The antigen is phagocytized by the T cell C) The T cell responds by directly destroying the APC D) Other immune cells are stimulated to respond to the antigen

Lymphocytes with a CD8 glycoprotein on their surface are called ______ cells and lymphocytes with a CD4 glycoprotein on their surface are called ______ cells. A) cytotoxic T; B B) B; cytotoxic T C) B; helper T D) helper T; cytotoxic T E) cytotoxic T; helper

An opsonin is a __________________. A) subclass of immunoglobulin. B) compound released by leukocytes that aids in the immune response to an antigen. C) substance that promotes fever. D) compound released by leukocytes that inhibits the immune response to an antigen. E) substance that makes antigens more susceptible to phagocytosis.

Why is a cell-mediated immune response more effective against intracellular microorganisms (such as viruses) than an antibody-mediated response? A) Cell-mediated (vs. antibody-mediated) response results in activation of a many more immune cells, so it is more effective at destroying antigens B) Intracellular microorganisms are too large for antibodies to be effective against C) Intracellular microorganisms are too small for antibodies to be effective against D) Cell-mediated response results in destruction of cell containing the intracellular microorganism; antibodies can't enter cells

An individual develops a cold from a co-worker. This is an example of ______ immunity. A) active artificial B) passive natural C) passive artificial D) active natural

Treatments of disease that include the alteration of immune functions are called: A) hypersensitivity. B) passive immunity. C) active immunity. D) adaptive immunity. E) immunotherapy.

As one ages the effectiveness of adaptive immunity decreases.