Question 1

A 10-month-old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting,sweating,nausea,and irritability.Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another.From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering?

Accepted Answer

Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another; this usually causes strangulation of the blood supply and is more common in infants 10 to 15 months of age than in adults.
A hernia does not involve telescoping of the intestines.
An ileus could lead to bowel obstruction,but it does not involve telescoping.
Torsion can lead to pain and vomiting,but it does not involve telescoping.

Question 2

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing.He probably has:

Accepted Answer

Regurgitation,dysphagia,and substernal discomfort after eating are common in individuals with hiatal hernia.
Pyloric stenosis is manifested by projectile vomiting.
Gastric cancer is not manifested by heartburn.
Achalasia is a form of functional dysphagia caused by loss of esophageal innervation.

Question 3

A serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia is:

Accepted Answer

Strangulation of the hernia is a major complication.
Strangulation of the hernia,not hemorrhage,is a major complication.
Strangulation of the hernia,not peritonitis,is a major complication.
Strangulation of the hernia,not ascites,is a major complication.

Question 4

A 50-year-old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the stomach.He is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux.This condition is caused by:

Accepted Answer

Gastroesophageal reflux is due to loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter.
Gastroesophageal reflux is due to loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter; it is not due to fibrosis.
Gastroesophageal reflux is due to loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter,not stimulation of sympathetic nerves.
Gastroesophageal reflux is due to loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter,not reverse peristalsis.

Question 5

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor.Following surgery,he experienced a peptic ulcer.His ulcer is referred to as a(n)_____ ulcer.

Accepted Answer

A Cushing ulcer is a stress ulcer associated with severe head trauma or brain surgery that results from decreased mucosal blood flow and hypersecretion of acid caused by overstimulation of the vagal nerve.
The stress ulcer is termed Cushing,not infectious.
The stress ulcer is termed Cushing,not ischemic.
Curling ulcers develop secondary to burns.

Question 6

A 38-year-old female complains of epigastric fullness following a meal,nausea,and epigastric pain.Tests reveal narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum.This condition is referred to as:

Accepted Answer

The pylorus is the opening between the esophagus and the duodenum; the obstruction is pyloric.
Ileocecal obstruction is in the small intestine.
Hiatal hernia is related to the esophagus.
Hiatal obstruction is related to the esophagus.

Question 7

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium.Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ,the pain felt is classified as:

Accepted Answer

Visceral pain arises from a stimulus (distention,inflammation,ischemia)acting on an abdominal organ.
Somatic is a form of parietal pain.
Parietal pain,from the parietal peritoneum,is more localized and intense than visceral pain,which arises from the organs themselves.
Referred pain is visceral pain felt at some distance from a diseased or affected organ.

Question 8

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

Accepted Answer

Peptic ulcer disease is caused by breaks in the mucosa and the presence of corrosive substances.
High gastrin occurs,but the disease is due to breaks in the mucosa.
Vagal activity increases.
Gastric erosions occur,but they are not due to high ammonia.

Question 9

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

Accepted Answer

When gastroesophageal reflux leads to an inflammatory response,it is termed reflux esophagitis.
Esophagitis is due to an inflammatory response,not immune.
Esophagitis is due to an inflammatory response,not a congenital anomaly.
Esophagitis is due to an inflammatory response,not a secretory response.

Question 10

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

Accepted Answer

Esophageal varices is the most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding.
Diverticulosis could lead to bleeding,but it would be lower GI rather than upper.
Hemorrhoids can lead to bleeding,but they would be upper GI.
Duodenal ulcers could lead to upper GI bleeding,but peptic ulcers and varices are identified as more common.

Question 11

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance.He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea.His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

Accepted Answer

A nonabsorbable substance in the intestine leads to osmotic diarrhea.
Infections lead to secretory diarrhea.
Hypotonic diarrhea is not a form of diarrhea.
Food is not mixed properly,digestion and absorption is impaired,and motility is increased leading to motility diarrhea.

Question 12

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring.This condition is referred to as:

Accepted Answer

A hernia is a protrusion of the intestine through a weakness in the abdominal muscles or through the inguinal ring.
Intussusception is telescoping of one part of the intestine into another; this usually causes strangulation of the blood supply and is more common in infants 10 to15 months of age than in adults.
A volvulus is a twisting of the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle,with occlusion of the blood supply,often associated with fibrous adhesions.It occurs most often in middle-aged and elderly men.
Adhesions are irritation from surgery or trauma that leads to formation of fibrin and adhesions that attach to intestine,omentum,or peritoneum and can cause obstruction; they are most common in small intestine.

Question 13

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

Accepted Answer

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is vomiting.
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is vomiting,not constipation.
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is vomiting,not diarrhea.
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is vomiting,not heartburn.

Question 14

A 34-year-old male was diagnosed with a bacterial GI infection.Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with his condition?

Accepted Answer

Infections lead to secretory diarrhea.
A nonabsorbable substance in the intestine leads to osmotic diarrhea.
Hypotonic diarrhea is not a form of diarrhea.
Food is not mixed properly,digestion and absorption is impaired,and motility is increased,leading to motility diarrhea.

Question 15

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

Accepted Answer

Chronic gastritis is classified as type A (fundal)or type B (antral),depending on the pathogenesis and location of the lesions.
Gastritis is not classified by severity but by location.
Gastritis is not classified by age,but by location.
Gastritis is not classified by symptoms,but by location.

Question 16

A 42-year-old female presents with abdominal discomfort,epigastric tenderness,and bleeding.Gastroscopy reveals degeneration of the gastric mucosa in the body and fundus of the stomach.Which of the following would most likely follow?

Accepted Answer

Pernicious anemia can develop because the damage to the mucosa makes the intrinsic factor less available to facilitate vitamin B?? absorption in the ileum.
Osmotic diarrhea would not occur as a portion of the damage to the mucosa,but pernicious anemia could.
Increased acid secretion would not occur as a portion of the damage to the mucosa,but pernicious anemia could.
Decreased gastrin secretion would not occur as a portion of the damage to the mucosa,but pernicious anemia could.

Question 17

A 24-year-old male who sustained a head injury and fractured femur develops a stress ulcer.A common clinical manifestation of this ulcer is:

Accepted Answer

The most common clinical manifestation is bleeding.
The most common clinical manifestation is bleeding; bowel obstruction would occur much later and would not be expected.
The most common clinical manifestation is bleeding,not pulmonary embolism.
The most common clinical manifestation is bleeding; hepatomegaly is not associated with stress ulcers.

Question 18

A 39-year-old female with chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area 2 to 3 hours after eating is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer.Which of the following behaviors may have contributed to the development of the ulcer?

Accepted Answer

Acid production is stimulated by cigarette smoking.
Caffeinated beverages do not contribute to ulcer formation.
Fiber is important,but consuming limited fiber will not contribute to ulcer formation.
Antacids may relieve pain,but they do not contribute to ulcer formation.

Question 19

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain.He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack.Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer.The most likely cause of this disease is:

Accepted Answer

Use of NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins and maintenance of the mucosal barrier and decrease bicarbonate secretion.
NSAIDs decrease bicarbonate production.
H.pylori increases hydrogen secretion.
NSAIDs do not affect mucosal blood flow.

Question 20

A 52-year-old presents with bleeding from the rectum.This condition is referred to as:

Accepted Answer

Hematochezia is bleeding from the rectum.
Melena is a black or tarry stool.
Occult bleeding is hidden bleeding.
Hematemesis is vomiting blood.

Quiz 34: Alterations of Digestive Function