Quiz 12: Pathophysiology
Nursing
Q 1Q 1
The most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid is:
A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) magnesium.
D) calcium.
Free
Multiple Choice
A
Q 2Q 2
Which type of shock is differentiated from other types by the presence of laryngeal edema?
A) Anaphylactic
B) Septic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Hypovolemic
Free
Multiple Choice
A
Q 3Q 3
One of the primary functions of cortisol as it is released during the stress response is to:
A) inhibit lipolysis.
B) promote the release of beta-endorphins.
C) potentiate serotonin.
D) stimulate gluconeogenesis.
Free
Multiple Choice
D
Q 4Q 4
Mast cells activate the inflammatory response through:
A) degranulation and synthesis.
B) granulation and synthesis.
C) degranulation and agglutination.
D) granulation and agglutination.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 5Q 5
The study of the ways in which diseases interfere with normal body functions is called:
A) pathophysiology.
B) epidemiology.
C) immunology.
D) pathology.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 6Q 6
The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:
A) O negative.
B) AB positive.
C) AB negative.
D) O positive.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 7Q 7
Which of the following is NOT part of the body's response in secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A) Inflammatory mediators enter the system.
B) Plasma protein systems are activated.
C) Endorphin release contributes to vasodilation.
D) Catecholamine release is inhibited.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 8Q 8
Which of the following is NOT one of the body's three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?
A) Homeopathic secretions
B) Inflammatory response
C) Anatomic barriers
D) Immune response
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 9Q 9
Which of the following barriers provides the greatest degree of specificity when eliminating foreign substances from the body?
A) Apocrine secretions
B) Inflammation
C) Anatomical barriers
D) Immunity
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 10Q 10
Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients?
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Preexisting disease(s)
C) Inadequate nutrition
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 11Q 11
B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
A) neutralizing antigens.
B) producing antibodies.
C) directly attacking antigens.
D) producing antigens.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 12Q 12
Which of the following terms refers to the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the use of energy?
A) Diffusion
B) Facilitation
C) Osmosis
D) Active transport
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 13Q 13
Poisons released from bacterial cells when they die are known as:
A) endotoxins.
B) epitoxins.
C) exotoxins.
D) ectotoxins.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 14Q 14
The process in which the size of a cell decreases as a result of a decreasing workload is known as:
A) hypertrophy.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 15Q 15
The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as may occur in vomiting, can result in:
A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) respiratory acidosis.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 16Q 16
Which of the following is TRUE of anaerobic metabolism?
A) It occurs only in pathological conditions.
B) It occurs only during very strenuous exercise.
C) It is a normal part of cellular metabolism.
D) It occurs only in the presence of oxygen.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 17Q 17
Which of the following is NOT an acute inflammatory response?
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Vasodilation
C) Cellular infiltration
D) Thrombolysis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 18Q 18
Which of the following pH values indicates acidosis in the human body?
A) 7.35
B) 7.30
C) 7.40
D) 7.45
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 19Q 19
The attraction of leukocytes to the site of inflammation during degranulation is called:
A) apoptosis.
B) histocompatibility.
C) chemotaxis.
D) catabolism.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 20Q 20
The shift of intravascular fluid to the interstitial spaces is commonly called:
A) diuresis.
B) third-space fluid loss.
C) insensible water loss.
D) turgor.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 21Q 21
The activation of several body systems' baroreceptors to reestablish a normal blood pressure is a process known as:
A) compensation.
B) positive feedback.
C) inflammatory.
D) pathological.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 22Q 22
Oncotic force is related to the amount of ________ in a solution.
A) electrolytes
B) water
C) anions
D) protein
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 23Q 23
As blood volume is lost due to a traumatic injury, the body's response is to:
A) decrease heart rate and vasoconstrict major veins.
B) increase heart rate and decrease systemic vascular resistance.
C) decrease heart rate and promote peripheral vasoconstriction.
D) increase heart rate and close precapillary arterioles.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 24Q 24
Which of the following is considered the body's "first line of defense" when preventing infection and injury?
A) Chemotactic reactions
B) Anatomic barriers
C) Immune response
D) Inflammatory response
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 25Q 25
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is most likely when an Rh ________ mother has previously given birth to an Rh ________ infant and is now pregnant with an Rh ________ fetus.
A) negative; positive; positive
B) positive; negative; positive
C) negative; positive; negative
D) positive; negative; negative
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 26Q 26
Adequate perfusion depends on:
A) the presence of oxygen in the blood.
B) adequate production of carbon dioxide.
C) adequate blood pressure.
D) intact pump, intact container and fluid.
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 28Q 28
Blood pressure is represented by:
A) cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance.
B) the difference between preload and afterload.
C) stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
D) the difference between cardiac contractile force and peripheral vascular resistance.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 29Q 29
Which of the following is TRUE of leukotrienes?
A) They are released by B lymphocytes.
B) They inhibit vascular permeability.
C) They promote faster effects than histamines.
D) They are known as SRS-As.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 30Q 30
Which of the following best describes an antibody?
A) A toxin released when cells die
B) A cell that engulfs and destroys invading pathogens
C) A substance secreted by apocrine glands
D) A substance produced by B lymphocytes that binds with an antigen
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 31Q 31
Pulmonary edema is characteristic of which of the following types of shock?
A) Hypovolemic
B) Septic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Neurogenic
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 32Q 32
T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
A) directly attacking antigens.
B) producing antibodies.
C) neutralizing antigens.
D) producing antigens.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 33Q 33
The term pH is a measure of:
A) hydrogen ion concentration.
B) sodium bicarbonate concentration.
C) carbonic acid concentration.
D) sodium hydroxide concentration.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 34Q 34
Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a body cell?
A) Diffusion
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Hydrostatic pressure
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 35Q 35
What is the primary constituent of plasma?
A) Clotting factors
B) Water
C) Proteins
D) Electrolytes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 36Q 36
What is the name of the level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together?
A) Organ
B) Organism
C) Organ system
D) Organelle
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 37Q 37
Which one of the following is most likely to result in hypovolemic shock?
A) Acute spinal cord injury
B) Gunshot wound to the hand
C) Left ventricular failure
D) Penetrating trauma to the abdomen
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 38Q 38
When cells are moderately differentiated with some structural similarity to the tissue of origin and the prognosis is fair, this is what grade of cancer cell?
A) 2
B) X
C) 1
D) 3
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 40Q 40
Which of the following impairs cellular metabolism in shock?
A) Impaired use of both oxygen and glucose
B) Impaired use of oxygen only
C) Impaired use of glucose only
D) Impaired use of metabolic substrates and glucose
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 41Q 41
The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is:
A) magnesium.
B) sodium.
C) calcium.
D) potassium.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 42Q 42
A patient is given antibody therapy in the hospital to prevent infection after exposure to a communicable disease. This is an example of ________ immunity.
A) passive natural
B) active natural
C) passive acquired
D) active acquired
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 43Q 43
Which of the following is a response to histamine release?
A) Release of leukotrienes
B) Increase in blood flow at the site of injury
C) Decrease in vascular wall permeability
D) Suppression of lysosomal enzymes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 44Q 44
Which of the following mechanisms buffers the acidity of the blood the fastest?
A) Increased hydrogen ion elimination in the urine
B) Protein buffering system
C) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
D) Increased respiratory rate
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 45Q 45
Your patient is presenting with rapid-onset hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is LEAST likely to be the cause?
A) Septic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Neurogenic
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 46Q 46
Which of the following adaptive mechanisms for cellular injury is LEAST likely to result in the proliferation of malignant cells?
A) Atrophy
B) Dysplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 47Q 47
Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?
A) 0.9 percent sodium chloride
B) 0.45 percent sodium chloride
C) 1.8 percent sodium chloride
D) 0.2 percent sodium chloride
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 48Q 48
You are presented with a patient displaying urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This patient is MOST likely suffering from:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) hypovolemia.
C) sepsis.
D) cardiogenic failure.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 49Q 49
The chemical mediators that are released when mast cells degranulate primarily cause:
A) enhanced cardiac contractility.
B) vasodilation.
C) depressed pumping action of the heart.
D) vasoconstriction.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 50Q 50
Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?
A) Sympathetic tone
B) Homeostasis
C) Inflammation
D) General adaptation syndrome
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 51Q 51
What type of epithelial tissue is found in the ureters and urinary bladder?
A) Glandular
B) Transitional
C) Stratified squamous
D) Pseudostratified
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 52Q 52
The tissue that lines many internal and external body surfaces is known as ________ tissue.
A) fibrous
B) connective
C) parietal
D) epithelial
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 53Q 53
Two solutions are separated by a membrane that is more permeable to water than to sodium. Solution A contains 250 mEq/mL of sodium, and Solution B contains 125 mEq/mL of sodium. Given this, which of the following is TRUE?
A) Active transport is required to move sodium ions from Solution A to Solution B.
B) Water will move from Solution A to Solution B.
C) Water will move from Solution B to Solution A.
D) Sodium ions will diffuse from Solution A to Solution B.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 54Q 54
A solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be:
A) hypertonic.
B) osmotic.
C) isotonic.
D) hypotonic.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 55Q 55
Treatment of immune deficiencies through the use of replacement therapies includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) gene therapy.
B) transplantation.
C) psychoneuroimmunologic regulation.
D) gamma globulin therapy.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 56Q 56
Which of the following conditions may result in edema?
A) Inhibition of ADH (vasopressin)
B) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
C) Loss of plasma proteins
D) Administration of a hypertonic solution
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 57Q 57
A positively charged atom or group of atoms is known as a(n):
A) electron.
B) neutron.
C) cation.
D) anion.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 58Q 58
The abnormal or disordered growth of a cell from rapid preproduction is known as:
A) mitosis.
B) dysplasia.
C) adaptation.
D) dysphasia.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 59Q 59
The enzymes necessary for DNA replication are in the ________ of the cell.
A) cytoplasmic membrane
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosomes
D) nucleus
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 61Q 61
Which of the following events does NOT occur during an inflammation response?
A) Development of humoral immunity
B) Promotion of healing
C) Removal of unwanted substances
D) Walling off of the infected and inflamed area
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 62Q 62
The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:
A) cardiac output.
B) preload.
C) myocardial capacity.
D) afterload.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 63Q 63
Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.
A) 90
B) 0.09
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 64Q 64
Allergy, autoimmunity, and isoimmunity are types of:
A) hypersensitivity.
B) insensitivity.
C) polysensitivity.
D) hyposensitivity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 65Q 65
Which of the following is defined as the percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes?
A) Differential
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 66Q 66
The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:
A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia.
D) atrophy.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 67Q 67
Shock can best be described as:
A) hypotension.
B) a decrease in myocardial contractility.
C) decreased cardiac output.
D) a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 68Q 68
Patients who suffer graft rejections and contact allergic reactions are experiencing which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type II
B) Type IV
C) Type III
D) Type I
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 69Q 69
Which of the following best describes the body's reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Adaptation
C) Immune response
D) Tachyphylaxis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 70Q 70
Which of the following is NOT a function of exudate?
A) To destroy the infected host cell
B) To dilute toxins released by bacteria and the toxic products of dying cells
C) To bring plasma proteins and leukocytes to the site to attack the invaders
D) To carry away the products of inflammation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 71Q 71
The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:
A) homeostasis.
B) metabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) catabolism.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 72Q 72
Which of the following is NOT consistent with an IgE mediated response to antigens?
A) Flushed, itching skin
B) Increased heart rate
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Profound vasoconstriction
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 73Q 73
Septic shock is precipitated by:
A) poisoning.
B) exposure to an antigen.
C) multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.
D) an overwhelming infection.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 74Q 74
Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:
A) electrolytes.
B) elements.
C) anions.
D) molecules.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 75Q 75
________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.
A) Thrombocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Stem cells
D) Leukocytes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 76Q 76
When a foreign substance invades the body, the inflammatory response develops ________ compared to the immune response.
A) more quickly
B) more specifically
C) for a longer time
D) with fewer cell types
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 77Q 77
An excessive absorption and accumulation of iron in the body, causing weight loss, joint pain, abdominal pain, palpitations and testicular atrophy in males is:
A) splenomegaly.
B) cholecystitis.
C) hemophilia.
D) hemochromatosis.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 78Q 78
One of the body's anatomical barriers to infection and injury is/are:
A) epithelium.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) cytotoxic factors.
D) phagocytes.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 79Q 79
Elevations in brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) in the blood have become the "marker" for which of the following conditions?
A) Liver failure
B) Brain cancer
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Pancreatitis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 80Q 80
What is a predisposing factor to the development of disease within the human body?
A) Lifestyle
B) Bacteria
C) Immunity
D) Biology
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 81Q 81
In some instances, when the predisposing factors to development of a disease cannot be identified, the disease is termed:
A) idiopathic.
B) congenital.
C) pathogenic.
D) irreversible.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 82Q 82
A subclavian central intravenous line is placed into a patient to administer intravenous nutrition following a severe burn. During the line insertion, the dome of the lung is inadvertently punctured, resulting in a pneumothorax. The cause of the pneumothorax in this case is:
A) iatrogenic.
B) neoplastic.
C) teratogenic.
D) ischemic.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 83Q 83
Why are gases such as helium considered extremely stable?
A) They have a full valence shell.
B) They are the most abundant in nature.
C) They have a short half-life.
D) They are in the top portion of the periodic table.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 84Q 84
Covalent bonds:
A) share electrons equally and are the strongest of the three types of chemical bonds.
B) trade electrons equally and are the weakest of the three types of chemical bonds.
C) share electrons unequally and are the strongest of the three types of chemical bonds.
D) trade electrons unequally and are the weakest of the three types of chemical bonds.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 85Q 85
What makes an inorganic compound different from an organic compound?
A) An inorganic compound does not contain carbon.
B) An inorganic compound does contain carbon.
C) An inorganic compound is found commonly in plants.
D) An inorganic compound is more common than organic compounds.
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 87Q 87
What is a chemical property of amylose within the body?
A) It is insoluble in water and thus allows it to serve as a storage reservoir for glucose.
B) It is important in creating bulk and moving fecal matter through the large intestine.
C) It is essential for the growth and repair of living tissues.
D) It is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 88Q 88
A highly reactive molecule or atom that has an unpaired electron in an outer orbital that is NOT contributing to molecular bonding is termed a:
A) free radical.
B) nucleic acid.
C) cofactor.
D) peptide.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 89Q 89
Which of the following is NOT a property of water?
A) The ability to pass through cellular membranes with ease
B) The ability to carry away a significant amount of heat
C) The ability to dissolve both polar and charged substances
D) The ability to absorb a large amount of heat energy
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 90Q 90
What is a major enzyme found in the blood that is an important part of the protein buffer system?
A) Carbonic anhydrase
B) Acetylcholinesterase
C) Monoamine oxidase
D) Renal alteplase
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 91Q 91
What is the major role of the phosphate buffer system?
A) Stabilization of urine's pH
B) Stimulating a chloride shift in the ECF
C) Promotion of the glycolysis process
D) Oxidation of all free radicals
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 92Q 92
When the respiratory system cannot effectively eliminate all the carbon dioxide generated through metabolic activities in the peripheral tissues, this causes:
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 93Q 93
The cellular membrane proteins and their functions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) buffers.
B) linkers.
C) receptors.
D) enzymes.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 94Q 94
The movement of water from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration is known as:
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) endocytosis.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 95Q 95
Approximately 70 percent of all body water is found within which compartment?
A) Intracellular
B) Extracellular
C) Intravascular
D) Interstitial
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 96Q 96
When the concentration of a solute is less on one side of the cell membrane, as compared to the other, the solution is referred to as:
A) hypotonic.
B) hypertonic.
C) isotonic.
D) deficient.
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 98Q 98
The development of the breasts in females during puberty and enlargement of the breasts during pregnancy are two examples of:
A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) atrophy.
D) metaplasia.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 99Q 99
Which of the following is NOT derived from three distinct cell lines seen during early embryonic development?
A) Epiderm
B) Endoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Ectoderm
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 100Q 100
All the organisms of the same species residing in a distinct geographic area (e.g., continent, city) are called:
A) a population.
B) an ecosystem.
C) a community.
D) a biome.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 101Q 101
Which of these terms refers to a disease caused by diminished blood supply?
A) infectious
B) immunologic
C) ischemic
D) metabolic
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 102Q 102
Which of these terms refers to a disease caused by problems occurring during fetal development?
A) genetic
B) iatrogenic
C) neoplastic
D) congenital
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 103Q 103
Which of these are single-celled organisms that consist of internal cytoplasm surrounded by a rigid cell wall?
A) prions
B) viruses
C) parasites
D) bacteria
Free
Multiple Choice