Quiz 3: Clinical Assessment

Clinical assessment is a completely objective process.

Therapeutic assessment and clinical assessment are the same thing.

If a person obtains a similar score on the same test taken twice, the test is said to have internal consistency reliability.

Predictive validity is a kind of criterion validity.

A test can be reliable without being valid.

The manner in which a clinical interview is conducted can impact the information obtained.

Lack of awareness of assessment techniques is one reason clinicians do not engage in evidence-based assessment.

Test norms represent the average score on a psychological test.

The MMPI-2 can be used as a diagnostic measure.

Intelligence tests are based on the assumption that a person's intellectual functioning can predict success in school.

If one particular group (e.g., Inuit) score in an abnormal manner on an IQ test, it means the group is abnormal.

Typically, psychoanalytic therapists use the SORC method for assessment.

A cognitive therapist will pay particular attention to a client's negative thoughts.

Monitoring one's own behaviour can be called experience sampling.

Family assessment focuses mainly on early parent-child interactions.

CT and MRI scans can assess for structural damage in the brain.

fMRI has been used to diagnose schizophrenia.

Imaging studies can be used to confirm diagnoses like ADHD and dementia.

Neurologists and neuropsychologists specialize in disorders of the central nervous system.

Psychophysiological assessment measures arousal.

The process of clinical assessment involves A) conducting individual and group psychotherapy. B) figuring out clients' issues and what might improve their conditions. C) testing the reliability and validity of a client's presenting symptoms. D) all of the above.

Diagnosis and clinical assessment differ in that A) clinical assessment asks broader questions. B) clinical assessment criteria are more clearly defined. C) diagnosis establishes the cause of the problem. D) diagnosis can only be done by someone with medical training.

The manner in which clinical assessment is completed depends on: A) The presenting problem B) The theoretical orientation of the client C) The theoretical orientation of the therapist D) Whether the therapist uses a structured interview or not

Jan is a clinical psychologist who believes that clients can benefit from knowing the results of assessment techniques as they come up, rather than treating assessment and intervention as two separate processes. Jan is engaging in A) Cognitive behavioural case formulation B) Personality testing C) Thought listing D) Therapeutic assessment

Diane was taking a personality test. The test has items that are all closely related to one another. This is an example of: A) External validity B) Internal consistency reliability C) Internal validity D) Test-retest reliability

Jim was given an intelligence test in March, and re-administered the same test one year later. His score both times was the same. This indicates that the intelligence test has A) high test-retest reliability B) high interrater agreement C) internal consistency D) none of the above are correct

Esther was given a memory test in January and administered a different memory test one year later. She scored almost identically on both tests. This indicates that the memory tests have A) high test-retest reliability B) high interrater agreement C) alternate-form reliability D) none of the above are correct

Dr. X and Dr. Y are diagnosing a patient. After administering the SCID for DSM-IV, Dr. X decides the patient is suffering from schizophrenia while Dr. Y decides the patient is suffering from schizoaffective disorder. This kind of disagreement is an example of: A) Low content reliability B) Low predictive reliability C) Low test-retest reliability D) Low inter-rater reliability

Dr. Hu is concerned about cheating in his abnormal psychology class. He decides to give two different versions of his final exam and finds that students performed better on one version than the other. He concludes that the students who did poorly must have cheated off students with the other form. This conclusion is: A) Correct - good for him for catching the cheaters B) Incorrect - there are too many other factors that could have influenced the difference C) Incorrect - he may not have made sure each version of the test was equivalent D) Inconclusive - based on this limited information, he could be right or wrong

You are designing a new scale that measures adolescent problem eating behaviours. You decide to administer your test with the Eating Disorders Inventory, a 'gold standard' measurement instrument. This in an example of: A) Case validity B) Content validity C) Concurrent validity D) Construct validity

Many graduate school applicants are required to take the Graduate Record Examination (GRE). If the applicant were successful and the university were to correlate the scores on their GRE with their first year grade point average (GPA), a high correlation would indicate: A) High concurrent validity B) High predictive validity C) High content validity D) High construct validity

Joan was taking a test to measure levels of depression. All of the items covered the symptoms that are typical of depression. This inventory would be said to have: A) High discriminant validity B) High content validity C) High criterion validity D) High case validity

What differentiates 'content' from 'construct' validity? A) Construct validity relies on statistical measures to establish its value. B) Content validity relies on statistical measures to establish its value. C) Construct validity refers to the degree to which it correlates with other scales/inventories. D) Content validity refers to the degree to which it correlates with other scales/inventories.

'Criterion' validity refers to: A) Whether a measure adequately samples the domain of interest B) The measurement of two observable behaviours at the same point in time C) The degree to which a measure correlates with other scales/inventories D) The degree to which it differs from other scales/inventories

Ed appears to have social phobia; the determination of this diagnosis was made by his scores on a particular measure of social fear. Scores like his have been shown in the past to be related to social phobia, as well as correlated with a variety of measures of social and occupational disability associated with social phobia. The measure Ed took would be said to have: A) High construct validity B) High content validity C) High criterion validity D) High statistical validity

Dr. Burns is concerned about whether his interpretations about his client, Lisa, are truly representative of her and how she interacts with her world. He seems to be concerned about: A) Predictive validity B) Concurrent validity C) Case validity D) Actual validity

Unlike a conversation with your friend, a clinical interviewer would focus on A) structure. B) how the person responds. C) objectivity. D) how the person uses humour.

Because interviewees often have difficulty recounting intensely personal matters, it is important that interviewers A) have a clear paradigm. B) establish rapport. C) be alert to situational factors. D) structure the interview.

Which of the following is true regarding interviewing the client? A) It enables one to obtain vast amounts of information. B) It is too subjective to be of much value in assessment. C) It provides the most valid information in the assessment. D) Behavioural clinicians consider it unnecessary.

What is the influence of adopting a paradigm when conducting a clinical interview? A) It guides the content of the questions asked. B) It specifies how the interviewer obtain information. C) It directs the way the information will be interpreted. D) All of the above.

In some measure, the information collected by clinical interviewers during an assessment is limited by: A) What the clinical interviewers are looking for B) The mood of the clinical interviewers C) The clients' readiness for psychotherapy D) The therapists' acceptance of the clients' readiness for psychotherapy

The psychodynamic clinician conducting therapy assumes that: A) People are not aware of what is truly brings them to therapy B) People will resolve their problems by observing their behaviour C) People are fairly at ease to divulge personal matters from the start D) None of the above

Two behavioural clinicians interview the same client. Which of the following is likely to be true? A) The information collected will be very similar. B) The information collected will vary greatly. C) There will be high reliability between the information collected. D) There will be strong agreement as to what is wrong with the client.

The reliability and validity of a clinical interview increase: A) With the number of meeting the clinician has with the client B) With the level of trust the client has in the clinician C) When the clinician reveals personal information about oneself D) When the interview is unstructured rather than structures

Which of the following is a structured interview? A) MMPI B) SCID C) TAT D) Rorschach

Dr. Bradley was conducting a clinical interview with Harold. When interviewed together with his father, Harold stated that he had never drunk alcohol. However, when interviewed later alone, Harold admitted that he got drunk every weekend. This example demonstrates the problem of A) unconscious factors impacting the interview process. B) the impact of situational factors on the validity of a clinical interview. C) lack of standardization of interview questions. D) too much structure in the interview process.

In a clinical interview, Dr. Carlson asks Maria to describe her early relationship with her mother, and she finds out that Maria was abused as a child. Dr. Bryson later interviews Maria, and asks what thoughts she has been having about her upcoming job promotion; he discovers that Maria is very anxious about not being able to perform well. These examples illustrate the importance of _______________ in clinical interviews. A) situational factors B) environmental factors C) paradigms D) structure

What characterizes the SCID? A) It is a projective personality test. B) It is a non-structured interview. C) It has a branching system. D) It has poor reliability.

On the Statistical Clinical Interview Diagnosis (SCID), the severity of a symptom is indicated by: A) Evaluating the client's non-verbal responses B) Asking the client to describe the symptom C) Attributing a score between 1 and 3 D) How often the symptom bothers the client

A clinician uses the SCID diagnostic interview to determine if Mary is suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The clinician decides that although Mary has some symptoms related to OCD, they do not reach the levels of severity or duration required for a diagnosis. Inspection of her SCID rating scores likely revealed: A) She met the criteria for OCD not otherwise specified (NOS) B) Only scores = 1 C) Some scores = 2 D) Numerous scores = 3

When a client is attributed a score of 1 on the SCID, what does the clinical interviewer do? A) Skip to the next question B) Administer another test C) Review the question to ensure accuracy D) Ask the same question a different way

Rogers (2003) argues for importance and utility of proper structured interviews because: A) Research is showing they tend to have poor reliability B) Research is showing that only half of depression cases are detected in primary settings C) Research is showing they tend to have poor validity D) Research is showing that too many cases of depression are detected in primary settings

At a university counselling centre, which question is most likely to elicit the most honest response? A) "How often do you smoke pot?" asked by a 55 year old male therapist B) "How often do you smoke pot?" asked by a 60 year old female therapist C) "How often do you smoke pot?" asked by a 30 year old male therapist D) "How often do you smoke pot?" asked by a 45 year old female therapist

Economic pressures, such as reimbursement for a limited number of sessions, has lead clinicians to use __________ when engaging in assessment: A) Evidence-based assessment tools B) Best-practice guidelines C) Unstructured clinical interviews D) Whatever tools the insurance company requests

The call for using evidence-based assessment techniques parallels the growth in the area of: A) Evidence-based personality tests B) Evidence-based treatments C) Evidence-based clinical interviews D) Evidence-based behavioural checklists

You have developed a new personality inventory that will be used to match roommates in order to minimize conflict. Before you can market the test, you must administer it to several hundred individuals to establish norms. This phase of test development is referred to as: A) Branching B) Psychometrics C) Validation D) Standardization

Standards have traditionally not been established for: A) Projective personality tests B) Objective personality tests C) Intelligence tests D) All of the above

You decide that you wish to use the MMPI to form a scale within the instrument to distinguish potential professional wrestlers from those without the potential to be wrestlers. Using the same method as that used to develop the MMPI, you would A) identify items that were about wrestling. B) identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers. C) find all the items that wrestlers answered as true regarding themselves. D) look for consistency among items endorsed by wrestlers as true.

The MMPI is an example of a(n) A) projective test. B) personality inventory. C) intelligence test. D) structured clinical interview.

Which of the following was not a change made in the revised version of the MMPI? A) Increase racial representativeness in the norm sample. B) Alter the format for answering questions. C) Alter the norm sample to reflect the composition of the US. D) Alter items to make the content more current.

Which of the following is a possible limitation of computer generated scoring of the MMPI? A) The competency of the professional reading the score report. B) The competency of the professional who developed the computer-generated report. C) The ability of the computer to handle respondents who 'fake-bad.' D) The usefulness of the computer-generated report in developing comprehensive reports.

Compared to the original MMPI, the MMPI-2 A) is almost identical. B) has a much larger and more diverse standardization sample. C) has completely new scales and norms. D) has turned out to be much less valid at discriminating psychiatric patients.

Computer score reports are quite popular in scoring which of the following instruments? A) TAT B) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Third Edition C) MMPI-2 D) Halstead-Reitan

Revision of the MMPI with the new MMPI-2 involved: A) Deleting the marital problems scale B) Adding the schizophrenia scale C) Adding the Type B behaviour scale D) Deleting items with objectionable content

Taken together, the ? Scale, L scale, F scale and K scale of the MMPI-2 are termed: A) Validity scales B) Content scales C) Personality scales D) Hypothetical scales

The MMPI detects individuals attempting to fake the test by A) including special scales to detect lying. B) inferring the lying behaviour from answers left blank. C) re-administering the test. D) examining highly unusual responses.

The special scales to detect lying in the MMPI are considered: A) Reliability scales B) Validity scales C) Faking scales D) None of the above

Which of the following is the best example of an item that might be included in the MMPI lie scale? A) "Sometimes I feel nauseous for no apparent reason." B) "I enjoy reading detective novels." C) "I have never used a foul word." D) "I often walk after dinner."

How does the MMPI attempt to determine if a particular person is responding to the test in a valid way? A) By having a large enough standardization sample. B) By conducting the interview in a structured and standardized way. C) By including special validity scales to detect response biases. D) By providing ambiguous stimuli so the person does not know which answer is right or wrong.

On the MMPI, someone who is overanxious, worrying, and full of self-doubts would likely score high on the subscale assessing: A) Hysteria B) Psychasthenia C) Deviance D) Infrequency

The K scale and the "cannot say" scale are measures from: A) The MMPI-2 B) The Thematic Apperception Test C) The Blackie Picture Test D) The NEO-PI-R five factor inventory

The stimulus materials in the Thematic Apperception Test are ambiguous to: A) Increase the likelihood that the individual is giving responses that unconsciously mediated B) Increase precision C) Increase rapport D) Create discomfort in the client and thereby encourage a closer relationship with the therapist

The projective hypothesis assumes that A) responses to highly structured tasks reveal hidden attitudes and motivations. B) preferences for unstructured stimuli reveal unconscious motives. C) unstructured stimuli provoke anxiety. D) responses to ambiguous stimuli are influenced by unconscious factors.

The projective hypothesis is derived from which paradigm? A) Learning B) Cognitive C) Psychoanalytic D) Diathesis-stress

Dr. Gallagher was interpreting the results of a Rorschach test, and reported that the client was probably fixated at the anal stage because he saw bathroom items in many of the cards. This is an example of A) the projective hypothesis. B) the unreliability of the Rorschach. C) the Exner scoring system. D) standardized interpretation.

The Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n) A) intelligence test. B) diagnostic inventory. C) personality inventory. D) projective test.

Based on the projective hypothesis, projective tests' real purposes are: A) Best made clear to the clients B) To bypass clients' repression C) To address the complex causes of distress D) Not really clear to psychologists

You are being tested, and the examiner is showing you pictures and you are asked to tell complete stories about the photos. You are probably taking A) The Rorschach B) The MMPI-2 C) The Thematic Apperception Test D) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-III

The following projective test provides objective criteria for scoring: A) The Rorschach Inkblot Test B) The Roberts Apperception Test for Children C) The Thematic Apperception Test D) The Sentence Completion Test

Critics of the projective tests have been and remain particularly concerned: A) About their use in the classroom B) About under- pathologizing the respondents C) That one third of forensic psychologists use them D) That judges often require them as part of a mental health evaluation

According to Meyer's (2004) meta-analytic review about the reliability and validity of projective tests, they: A) Are significantly less reliable and valid than other psychological tests B) Are not appropriate for use in the courtroom C) Are not noticeably deficient relative to other assessment procedures D) Should only be used by clinicians trained in the psychodynamic paradigm

Intelligence tests were originally developed for the purpose of A) determining which psychiatric patients could benefit from "talk" therapy. B) predicting which children had special academic needs. C) identifying gifted children. D) segregating people of low intelligence so they would not have children.

The construct validity of intelligence tests is limited by A) how psychologists define intelligence. B) the nature of the population tested with the instruments. C) their generally low reliability. D) none of the above choices are correct.

Cultural bias is problematic in assessment in that: A) Most psychological tests have been rendered invalid when used with different cultures B) A lack of awareness of cultural factors can create difficulties in reaching conclusions from assessment C) Clinicians cannot be aware of different cultures in evaluation D) Cultural differences cloud objectivity

It has been argued that many of the questions on the Wechsler tests of intelligence are problematic for Canadians because of the culturally specific American content. Researchers have found that Canadians score ____________ than Americans on these tests. A) lower B) higher C) about the same D) no comparison made

Tom has been tested to determine whether he is suffering from dementia. Which of the following tests was most likely administered to him? A) The Thematic Apperception Test B) The MMPI C) The WAIS D) The Rorschach

Average intelligence is associated with a score of approximately: A) 130 B) 70 C) 100 D) Average intelligence cannot be determined

To say that intelligences tests have good criterion validity means that: A) They can distinguish giftedness and mental retardation B) They can differentiate people with different occupations C) They cannot predict educational and vocational attainment D) They cannot distinguish people at the high and low ends of the intelligence spectrum

Traditionally ignored in original intelligence tests, there is growing interest in __________ aspects of intelligence to predict future success. A) academic achievement B) abstract reasoning C) social comprehension D) emotional

High levels of emotional intelligence have been associated with: A) greater levels of subjective well-being B) reduced proneness to depression C) social interactions D) A and B only

A person must have an IQ of ________ in order to be considered intellectually gifted. A) 70 B) 100 C) 130 D) 150

A person is gifted if he or she has an IQ score of 130. The score of 130 corresponds to: A) The mean score obtained by famous "geniuses" B) One standard deviation above the mean C) Two standard deviations above the mean D) Three standard deviations above the mean

A high level of emotional intelligence is linked with: A) Higher levels of anxiety B) Greater susceptibility to depression C) Greater levels of subjective well-being D) Lower levels of intelligence

Justin and Jerome are both in grade 9 and are tied for being at the top of their class. At the end of the year, the teachers decide they need to declare one boy "the best," so they decide to use the boys' IQ scores as the tie-breaker. While their school grades are identical, Justin's IQ score is 15 points higher than Jerome's. What is the most logical explanation? A) Justin probably cheated on the test B) Jerome was sick on the day of the test C) Jerome is Black and Justin is White D) Justin is Black and Jerome is White

Before taking an IQ test, Mila was told that girls typically do poorly on the math A) Similarly good scores on vocabulary and math B) Better scores on vocabulary than math C) Better scores on math than vocabulary D) Similarly poor scores on vocabulary and math

The test you are currently writing is given to students in both Canada and the United States. Typically, Canadian students do better. If you, in fact, score better on this exam than your American counterparts, you are reinforcing: A) Race norms B) Critical thinking C) Stereotype threat D) Alternate-forms reliability

A Canadian study of Inuit children using the WISC-R's original norms found that their intelligence scores were: A) Between 90 and 95 B) Between 80 and 90 C) Between 70 and 80 D) Under 70

According to Wilgosh et al's (1986) study, what percentage of Inuit children would be classified as mentally retarded based on their verbal IQ scores alone? A) 25 B) 40 C) 60 D) 75

Zachary, a hunter from the James Bay area, was given the Kohs Blocks test and completed the test so fast that his IQ went "off the scale" (exceeded 180) on all seven examples. What does this tell us about IQ tests? A) The scale was invalid B) IQ scales require a greater range to capture all levels of functioning C) IQ tests can be biased in favour of the Inuit due to their specialized skills D) Because of their tendency to get lower IQ scores, Inuit's performance scores are often adjusted upward

Results from the "Inuit Norming Study" indicated that over _____ of children attained a verbal IQ score of less than 70. A) 2% B) 10% C) 50% D) 75%

When Inuit children and non-Inuit children score radically differently on IQ tests, the best explanation may be that: A) Inuit children are less intelligent than non-Inuit children B) Inuit children did not understand the questions C) Inuit children had difficulty with the language of the test D) Non-Inuit children probably cheated

Results of the "Inuit Norming Study" suggest that many of the children in this study were misclassified as mentally retarded. This misclassification was likely related to all of the following EXCEPT: A) issues with language (e.g., English is a second language) B) culturally irrelevant questions C) the lack of special education programs in the North D) the number of questions the children couldn't answer

The C in the SORC system that is used by behaviour and cognitively-oriented therapists' standards for: A) Cognitions B) Cases C) Consequences D) Completions

Compared to traditional personality assessment, behavioural assessment A) does not use self-report data because of its lack of reliability. B) relies more heavily on self-report data. C) focuses on situational determinants rather than traits. D) focuses on what a person says, rather than how it is said.

Which of the following is least likely to be used in behavioural assessment? A) Projective tests B) Clinical interviews C) Self-report inventories D) Physiological measures

Liz is typically anxious when she goes to the supermarket. Using the acronym SORC, the supermarket would be the A) S. B) O. C) R. D) C.

When Liz is in the supermarket, she feels increasing anxiety, and she then says to herself "I just can't stand feeling this feeling." Her self-statement would be the: A) S. B) O. C) R. D) C.

Immediately after Liz leaves the supermarket, her anxiety decreases. Leaving the supermarket would be: A) S. B) O. C) R. D) C.

Liz reports to her parents that she feels anxious in the supermarket, and feels better when she leaves. Her mother then suggests doing the shopping for Liz. When Liz's mother suggests doing the shopping, this would be A) S. B) O. C) R. D) C.

Applying the SORC factors to a client's situation, a cognitively oriented therapist would find the _________ variable more important than would a Skinnerian behaviour therapist. A) S B) O C) R D) C

What is a key purpose of Person's cognitive behavioural case formulation approach? A) To create a theory to explain relations among client's problems. B) To formulate an individual diagnosis. C) To identify automatic thoughts. D) To be able to complete assessment and diagnosis in one session.

The five components of the Persons' case conceptualization approach are: A) Problem list, diagnosis, underlying mechanisms, strengths and assets, treatment plan B) Problem list, diagnosis, working hypothesis, strengths and assets, treatment plan C) Possible origins, developmental schemas, working hypothesis, strengths and assets, treatment plan D) Possible origins, diagnosis, weaknesses and strengths, symptoms, treatment plan

In Persons' case conceptualization approach, a problem list is created for the purpose of: A) Ensuring significant problems are not missed B) Generating ideas about causal relations C) Finding themes D) All of the above

What is Persons' and Davidson's view about making diagnoses? A) Diagnosis is a necessary component of any treatment plan B) Diagnosis is not helpful because it precludes greater understanding of the individual C) It is not required but is helpful for case formulation D) It must be done only after a working hypothesis is established

In Persons' case conceptualization, the Working Hypothesis does all of the following, EXCEPT: A) Describes the origins of the problems B) Delineates the possible relationships between problems C) Describes activating situations D) Gives information about the individual's strengths and weaknesses

Persons' case conceptualization about Strengths and Assets comprise: A) Social skills, sense of humour, financial resources, social support, stable friendships B) Social skills, sense of humour, financial resources, social support, stable lifestyle C) Social skills, sense of humour, logical thinking, social support, stable lifestyle D) Social skills, sense of humour, logical thinking, social support, stable friendships

The ________ is the "heart" of Persons and Davidson's cognitive-behavioural case formulation. A) Psychiatric diagnosis B) Working hypothesis C) Plan of action D) Schema

According to Persons and Davidson and their cognitive-behavioural case formulation approach, which of the following is part of the treatment plan? A) Goals B) Modality C) Obstacles D) All of the above

Persons and Davidson's (2001) cognitive-behavioural case formulation approach: A) Requires a DSM psychiatric diagnosis B) Determines one treatment goal C) Determines one main problem D) Determines a working hypothesis

A criticism of the cognitive-behavioural case formulation approach made by Bieling and Kuyken (2003) is: A) There is modest evidence for depression but not for obsessive-compulsive disorders B) There is modest evidence of reliability and need for more evidence for validity C) There is evidence of good inter-rater reliability for schema ratings but not overt problems D) There is evidence only for the reliability of single judges making schema ratings

What are the two most important components of the Treatment Plan phase according to the Person's case conceptualization approach? A) Goals and obstacles B) Modality and frequency C) Initial interventions and goals D) Modality and obstacles

Why do behavioural assessors sometimes set up contrived situations in which to observe behaviour? A) They do not think the setting is an important influence on people's behaviour. B) Such assessments avoid the problem of reactivity. C) They want to see how people respond in unusual situations. D) It is often difficult to control the conditions in natural settings.

An important aspect of behavioural assessment is that: A) It leads to intervention and evaluation of treatment. B) It helps identify mindful and compliant behaviours. C) It is more valid than self-reflection and self-report. D) None of the above.

Direct observation of behavioural assessment tends to be more valid when: A) It is performed behind a one-way mirror. B) Those observing are naïve to the client's problem. C) More than one observer is involved. D) None of the above.

Carla is trying to quit smoking. As part of her behavioural assessment, she is asked to maintain a diary and record what occurred before, during and immediately following each time she smoked a cigarette, in real time. That is, she had structured record sheets for each day. This type of assessment is referred to as A) ecological momentary assessment. B) self-report. C) direct observation. D) behavioural interview.

What is the main advantage of using ecological momentary assessment (EMA) as compared to self-report questionnaires? A) EMA is measured in real time B) EMA allows you to recall the whole day each night C) EMA relies on your memory of the day's events D) EMA samples a portion of each day

What is the main disadvantage of using ecological momentary assessment (EMA)? A) It requires expensive electronic devices and training to use them. B) Self-consciousness required for self-monitoring alters behaviour. C) Real-world situations do not always reflect internal reactions. D) People may find that monitoring their behaviour is bothersome.

Matthew is a 10 year old boy who experiences anxiety. When performing the task of reading in front of a video camera, who will best predict Matthew's level of anxiety? A) His teachers B) His parents C) Matthew D) His classmates

A key reason for using ecological momentary assessments (EMA) is: A) Observer biases B) High test-retest reliability C) High correlation with traditional assessments D) Inaccuracies of retrospective reports

What behavioural assessment procedure creates the most reactivity? A) Self-monitoring B) Personality inventory C) Projective test D) Structured clinical interview

The concept of 'reactivity' in behavioural assessment reflects: A) The phenomenon of behaviours changing because they are being observed B) The phenomenon of emotional reactions changing because they are being observed C) The phenomenon of cognitions changing because they are being observed D) All of the above

Reactivity is: A) The tendency to automatically use defence mechanisms when anxious B) The tendency to answer self-report questions in a socially desirable manner C) The sense of attraction between the client and therapist D) The tendency to alter behaviours because of being observed by researchers

Cognitive assessment measures are usually used to A) identify psychopathology. B) explore the projective hypothesis. C) test theories about how people think. D) measure people's intelligence.

Which of the following is an advantage of the Articulated Thoughts in Simulated Situations cognitive assessment procedure, in which subjects talk out loud about their thoughts during a tape-recorded scene? A) The ambiguous stimuli enable the clinician to tap unconscious stimuli. B) The increased structure provides more detailed information than would be possible in a self-report questionnaire. C) The participant's thoughts about specific situations can be tapped in an immediate way. D) All of the above.

Xavier is recording his thoughts each time he feels depressed. This is also referred to as a __________ assessment. A) projective B) behavioural C) cognitive D) neuropsychological

What is the purpose of thought listing as a cognitive assessment tool? A) To enhance self-introspection B) To determine the cognitive aspects of the client's problems C) To assess motivation for therapy D) To determine how the individual thinks about the therapist

Penelope gets to work and realizes she forgot to pay her credit card bill that was due yesterday. She begins to tell herself that she's a hopeless screw-up and will never be successful. She is most likely suffering from: A) Alzheimer's Disease B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder C) Depression D) Generalized anxiety disorder

Research on thought listing and test anxiety by Blankstein, Flett, and associates indicates that test anxious students, relative to non-test anxious students: A) Have a greater frequency of negative thoughts about themselves B) Have a greater frequency of positive thoughts about themselves C) Have a greater frequency of negative thoughts about their professors D) Have a greater frequency of thoughts overall, and this serves to distract them

According to Blankstein and Segal (2001), the various cognitive assessment techniques tend to be: A) Highly correlated with each other B) Moderately correlated with each other C) Poorly correlated with each other D) None of the above; there is not enough research on the associations among the various cognitive techniques

In videotape reconstruction, the participant is asked specifically to remember his or her: A) Behaviours B) Thoughts C) Autobiographical history D) Social interactions

One of the reasons specialized approaches to cognitive assessment have been developed is because: A) People tend to editorialize when they self-report experiences B) People tend to deliberately modify what they report to their therapists C) People tend to forget crucial details when they self-report D) People tend to overemphasize good things and minimize bad things

The best way to assess immediate thoughts in specific situations is to: A) Use ecological momentary assessment (EMA) B) Use the Articulated Thoughts in Simulated Situations (ATSS) method C) Ask clients to keep a thought record D) Ask clients to recall their day via self-report before going to bed

The role of family in the development of abnormal behaviour is central to which theories? A) Classical psychoanalytic theories B) Object-relation theories C) Social learning theories D) All of the above

Family systems perspective holds that: A) Family environment reflect some of the components that present in the family setting B) The characteristics of the identified patient only must be included C) The various interactions between family members need to be taken into account D) People are simply the products of their environment

The concept of "equifinality" is the notion that: A) In treatment, the ends justifies the means B) Development must be measured and calibrated across the lifespan C) The same goal can result from different processes D) Goals continually change throughout the treatment process

Overly cohesive families are said to be: A) Engaged B) Enmeshed C) Reciprocally determined D) Over-determined

The circumplex model of family adjustment is based on the dimensions of: A) Cohesion and adaptability B) Coping and problem-solving C) Agency and communion D) Assimilation and accommodation

The family systems approach regards behaviours as: A) Finite B) Static C) Dynamic D) Biologically predetermined

Shaylah is preparing to conduct a family assessment on the Morgan family. She is particularly interested in knowing how the family is doing now, but also how they were when they were at their best, as well as at their worst. This illustrates the importance of: A) Getting a good history B) Levels of family functioning C) Assessing enmeshment D) Establishing her role as the authority figure

As a father, Andy is characterized by affectionless control. This means that Andy is: A) Neglectful and uninvolved B) Hostile and intrusive C) Dramatic and erratic D) Impulsive and unpredictable

Research with the Parental Bonding Inventory suggests that if a person is low in warmth but is very interfering and intrusive, he or she is said to be high in: A) Neglect B) Authoritative parenting C) Affectionless control D) Dismissing attachment

The EMBU (Egna Minnen Bettraffande Uppfostram) is a family measure that assesses: A) Abusive behaviours B) Memories of parental rearing styles C) Expressive emotions (including criticism) in the family D) Family systems and their associated processes

Using the McMaster Family Assessment Device (MFAD) with over 26,000 families in Ontario, Georgiades et al. (2008) found: A) There were large discrepancies in perceived family functioning between parents, dependents, other household residents B) There was substantial agreement across families in the amount of discrepancy C) Families with lower socio-economic status reported higher family functioning D) Families with lower family functioning tended to be middle class

The McMaster Family Assessment Device assesses: A) Whether families communicate well B) Perceived family adjustment C) The degree of enmeshment of parents with their children D) The degree of verbal abuse present among family members

How does the Family Assessment Measure-III improve upon the MFAD? A) It measures family cohesiveness B) It is quicker to administer C) It includes a measure of social desirability D) It doesn't; the MFAD is the gold standard

Many scales have been developed in Canada to assess family functioning. One of the major criticisms of these self-report measures is that: A) They tend to focus on only one member of the family B) They provide little insight into the family as an interacting system C) They have poor predictive validity D) They are culturally biased and used too many observers

A criticism of the Family Assessment Measure-III developed by Skinner and associates is that: A) It does not include a measure of social desirability B) It does not assess the functioning of the entire family C) It has found to be of limited use in assessing the families of people with certain disorders, such as anorexia D) It takes too long to complete

Which of the following family assessment scales has a measure of social desirability? A) McMaster Family Assessment Device (MFAD) B) Family Environment Scale (FES) C) Family Adaptation and Cohesion Evaluation Scale (FACES) D) Family Assessment Measure-III (FAM-III)

A recent study conducted by Ballash and colleagues (2006) using the McMaster Family Assessment Device found that __________________ mediated the relationship between aspects of family functioning and anxiety. A) perceived lack of control B) parental warmth C) lack of family cohesion D) parental approval

The process model of family functioning developed by Skinner and colleagues (2000) improves on the McMaster model by focusing more exclusively on: A) Intra-psychic needs B) Dynamic interactions of family functioning C) Interpersonal aspects of family functioning D) Control issues

Woodside and colleagues (2004) used the Family Assessment Measure-III to study eating disorder patients, and found: A) No evidence of familial factors in the development and recovery of eating disorders B) Evidence of familial factors in the development of but not recovery from eating disorders C) Some evidence for familial factors in the development and recovery of eating disorders D) Evidence of familial factors in recovery from but not development of eating disorders

Gan and colleagues (2006) used the Family Assessment Measure-III to study patients with brain injuries, and found: A) Greater familial stress for non-caregivers compared with care-givers B) Evidence of sex effects among care-givers C) Evidence of sex effects among patient with brain injuries D) Evidence of greater family distress when the family is poor

Caroline's father is constantly nagging her about picking up after herself, demanding that Caroline completes all of her chores before playing, and interrupting her play to run errands. In addition, Caroline's father never thanks her and does not show her warmth and caring. Her father's condition would be identified as ________ in the Parental Bonding Inventory. A) alexithymia B) affectionless control C) reflexive authority D) None of the above.

The CBC television show the fifth estate showcased a family's dysfunction ("the Trouble with Evan") and interestingly, family members did not alter their usual ways of interacting with each other. In other words there was no problem with: A) Sensitivity B) Responsively C) Reactivity D) Subjectivity

On the fifth estate segment titled "The Trouble with Evan", in which a family was voluntarily videotaped in their home, the emotional abuse of an 11-yr old boy was broadcast to the entire nation. What does this tell us about the issue of reactivity? A) The presence of video cameras was an intrusion that led to increased abuse. B) The presence of video cameras decreased the level of abuse due to the parent's awareness that they were being filmed. C) Despite the presence of cameras, the family patterns of abuse continued as they had before. D) It did not speak to the issue of reactivity.

Evan, the boy who was the centre of the controversial CBC show "The Trouble With Evan" engaged in: A) Suicidal behaviours B) Antisocial behaviours C) Cross-gender behaviours D) Drug-seeking behaviours

Evan's parents shown in the fifth estate CBC show "The Trouble With Evan" displayed: A) Neglect B) Emotional abuse C) Sexual abuse D) None of the above; they "sanitized" their behaviour because they were acutely aware of the fact that the cameras were recording their behaviours

Which is most similar to an X-ray? A) MRI B) EEG C) CT scan D) PET scan

PET is to CT scan as A) structure is to function. B) function is to structure. C) cognitive is to behavioural. D) projective is to objective.

PET and MRI are specific types of A) projective tests. B) personality inventories. C) neuropsychological tests. D) neurological tests.

Functional MRI (fMRI) differs from ordinary MRI in that A) fMRI records metabolic changes in the brain. B) ordinary MRI can only be done annually. C) fMRI relies upon other tests to assess brain function. D) ordinary MRI is invasive.

The CT scans used in a study conducted in London Ontario by Malla and colleagues (2002) demonstrated that patients with a first episode of schizophrenia had __________ of the ventricles and cortical sulci. A) minor enlargement B) minor constriction C) extensive enlargement D) extensive constriction

In a recent fMRI study conducted in British Columbia, abnormalities in the limbic system and frontal cortex were found in ___________. A) criminals with psychopathy B) non-criminals with psychopathy C) criminal without psychopathy D) non-criminals without psychopathy

The MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) test is superior to a CT scan (i.e., computerized axial tomography) because: A) It is less expensive B) Patients find it less anxiety-provoking C) It does not rely on the use of radiation D) All of the above

Dr. Jameson was reading a study and was surprised to learn that criminal psychopathy is associated with abnormalities in the limbic system and frontal cortex when processing affective stimuli. This finding was likely supported by: A) CT scan data B) MRI data C) fMRI data D) the Halstead-Reitan Test

A study by Malla and colleagues (2002) found enlarged ventricles and cortical sulci in first-episode schizophrenia patients using which of the following methods? A) Computerized axial tomography (CT scan) B) Single photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT) C) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) D) Positron emission tomography (PET scan)

A study by Bentaleb and colleagues (2002) of auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia found increased metabolic activity in the left primary auditory cortex and the right middle temporal gyrus sing: A) Computerized axial tomography (CT scan) B) Single photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT) C) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) D) Positron emission tomography (PET scan)

A study by Hentschel and colleagues (2005) of memory difficulties in a university clinic found: A) Changes in diagnosis in less than 5% of cases with the use of MRI and neuropsychological status findings B) Changes in diagnosis in about 10% of cases with the use of MRI and neuropsychological status findings C) Changes in diagnosis in over a quarter of cases with the use of MRI and neuropsychological status findings D) Changes in diagnosis with the use of neuropsychological status findings but not MRI results

Paulus (2008) evaluated whether neuroimaging can contribute to the diagnosis and treatment of anxiety disorders. He concluded: A) fMRI has potential as a clinical tool for such purpose B) Neuroimaging for studying groups will need specificity and sensitivity for individual usage C) More research is needed in identifying specific psychological criteria D) All of the above

Which of the following is true about biological assessments? A) They lead to more accurate diagnosis of psychopathology B) They are the basis of psychopathological diagnosis C) They help establish psychopathological diagnosis D) A and C only

Which kind of assessment is illustrated here? Dr. Lee assesses the possibility that Joe has brain damage by measuring Joe's performance on a number of tasks including copying symbols, remembering numbers, and recognizing nonsense syllables. A) physiological assessment B) neurological assessment C) psychological assessment D) neuropsychological assessment

Which of the following is a goal of neuropsychological testing? A) To describe strengths and weaknesses B) To provide treatment recommendations C) To determine whether psychological deficits are present D) To establish baseline measurements

The Halstead-Reitan battery assesses: A) Personality B) Family functioning C) Coping skills D) Brain Damage

The Luria-Nebraska neuropsychological battery is superior to neuropsychological examination because it can assess deficits in: A) The cognitive domain B) The motor domain C) The sensory domain D) All of the above

The Halstead-Reitan and Luria-Nebraska are specific types of: A) Personality inventories B) Intelligence tests C) Neuropsychological assessments D) Neurological procedures

Two people of the same age, Sarah and Linda, were administered the Luria-Nebraska neuropsychological test battery. Sarah graduated with a Ph.D., while Linda did not complete high school. Assuming all other factors equal, the scores they receive on the Luria-Nebraska A) should differ. Sarah should score higher based on education. B) should differ. Linda should score higher as it is not based on education. C) should not differ since it controls for education level. D) It is impossible to predict the differences.

Pearl has been quite forgetful lately, in addition to experiencing mood changes. Her daughter wants her to be evaluated for Alzheimer's Disease. Which professional should she consult with? A) Family doctor B) Neurologist C) Psychiatrist D) Psychologist

What was the emphasis in preeminent Canadian psychologist Donald Hebb's theory of biological psychology? A) The role of neurotransmitters B) The role of biofeedback C) The role of behaviour D) The role of brain lesions

In regards to brain-behaviour relationships, Rourke (2008) raised the following question: A) Whether the role of neurotransmitters can predict forms of psychosocial functioning in individuals B) Whether forms of psychosocial functioning of individuals can be predicted by neurological analysis C) Whether neuropsychological analysis of individuals could predict forms of psychosocial functioning D) Whether psychosocial functioning could predict neurotransmitter levels

The Canadian Study of Health and Aging (CSHA) is the largest epidemiological study to use neuropsychological tests in order to explore: A) Dementia B) Geriatric depression C) Brain injury D) Normal aging

Psychophysiology is the study of A) somatic treatments for psychological problems. B) the neurological basis of psychological problems. C) bodily changes associated with psychological events. D) phenomena such as extrasensory perception.

Which of the following assesses changes in the autonomic nervous system? A) Positron emission tomography (PET) B) Event-related potentials (ERP) C) Electrocardiogram D) Luria-Nebraska battery

Under which category of biological assessment methods do event-related potential (ERP) and electroencephalogram fall? A) Brain imaging B) Neurochemical C) Neuropsychological D) Psychophysiological

Why should we not expect a one-to-one relationship between psychological and physical measures of brain functioning? A) They cannot measure brain functioning during normal daily activity. B) Little is known about the functioning of individual neurons. C) Psychological measures have low reliability and validity. D) Individuals differ in how well they cope with brain dysfunctions.

An electrocardiogram assesses the functioning of: A) The brain B) The heart C) The skin D) The respiratory system

An electroencephalogram assesses the functioning of: A) The brain B) The heart C) The skin D) The respiratory system

The assessment of intellectual functioning and related processes in patients who have experience trauma (e.g., stroke) and as result, lack communication abilities is a major problem facing clinicians. One solution to this problem is the use of ____________ to examine cognitive functioning. A) cognitive event-related potentials B) non language-based tools C) magnetic resonance imaging D) computed tomography

The working hypothesis of Connolly and colleagues of Dalhousie University in Halifax is the notion that engaging in specific cognitive functions should lead to different _______ patterns. A) fMRI B) EEG C) ERP D) EKG

John Connolly described the beginnings of his Dalhousie University research program using ________ after being asked to assess a "hopeless" case who had suffered brain damage from a "foot-long knife." A) computerized axial tomography (CT scan) B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) C) positron emission tomography (PET) D) event-related potential (ERP)

Connolly and D'Arcy argue that the use of _______________ in assessment has several advantages when assessing patients who lack communication ability. A) cognitive ERP B) non-verbal subtests from WISC-III or WAIS-III C) Halstead-Reitan battery D) electrodermal responding

How are the concepts of reliability and validity similar and different? Can a measure be one and not the other? Explain.

Clinical interviews are described as the cornerstone of assessment - why? What information is gathered during an interview? How?

Are projective tests evidence-based assessments? Why or why not?

Compare the behavioural assessment approach (S-O-R-C) with projective tests. What is the contribution of each to an evaluation?

You are traveling with Psychologists Without Borders to sub-Saharan Africa and are asked to administer the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) while there to help determine people's eligibility to attend university in Canada. How would you administer, score, and interpret the results?

What does the acronym SORC represent? Do cognitive and behavioural therapists use it in the same way? Explain.

What is reactivity and what sorts of assessment methods can it impact?

During a family assessment, special attention is paid to parenting styles. What are the different parenting styles and which are related to better functioning?

What are the different types of brain imaging techniques and how do they inform assessment of psychological problems?

Discuss the differences in neurological, neuropsychological, and psychophysiological assessment.