Quiz 24: Relationship Testing

The goals of relationship testing of inherited genetic markers include all of these EXCEPT: A) confirm an alleged biological relationship between two or more individuals whose relationship is in question. B) refute an alleged biological relationship between two or more individuals whose relationship is in question. C) include all falsely accused men of being related to a child in question. D) provide compelling inclusionary evidence if a man is not excluded from being related to a child in question.

Which offspring scenario could not be the result of the marriage shown? A) Father: MM/Mother: NN-Child: MN B) Father: MN/Mother: NN-Child: NN C) Father: MN/Mother: MM-Child: NN D) Father: NN/Mother: NN-Child: NN

Which of these is not one of the classic systems used for parentage testing? A) ABO B) DNA C) Human leukocyte antigens D) Polymorphic proteins

The inclusionary calculations are deemed invalid if which of the following possible subjects is to be ruled out as the alleged father of the child? A) Brother B) Uncle C) Father D) All of the above

Apparent opposite homozygosity is also known as: A) direct exclusion. B) apparent exclusion. C) indirect exclusion. D) direct homozygous transition.

CODIS stands for: A) Convicted Offender Digital Identifying System B) Combined Offender DNA Index System C) Combined Operation Digital Index System D) None of the above

What test systems are used in the ascertainment of paternity? A) Endocrine, RBC, serum protein, enzymes B) RBC, HLA, enzymes, serum proteins C) RBC, enzymes, HLA, hormones D) Viral antigens, RBC, HLA, serum proteins

Which of the following is consistent with a low probability of paternity? A) Only 1 POG and 1 MOG were found to exist in the Rh system. B) More than 3 POGs were found in the HLA and MNS groups. C) The POG had a gene frequency of 0.0004 in the random population. D) None of the above

How is DNA testing advantageous to paternity cases? A) It provides cloning capabilities in xenographic studies. B) It provides visual insight into genetically inherited differences among individuals. C) It provides insight into approximate time of conception. D) It establishes a means of stem cell transplantation for related individuals.

What technology is used to demonstrate the presence of allelic variants of red blood cell enzymes and serum proteins? A) Electrophoresis B) Polymerase chain reaction C) Ion-exchange chromatography D) Fluorescence polarization

Which of the following AABB standards must be met in paternity testing? A) DNA testing using double-locus probes B) Independent reading of electrophoretograms by two technologists C) HLA and red blood cell antigen testing performed by two independent laboratories D) All of the above

Which of these is not a type of DNA polymorphism? A) PCR B) SNP C) STR D) VNTR

What component of the Hardy-Weinberg equation (p² + 2pq + q²) signifies heterozygotes? A) p² B) 2pq C) q² D) None of the above

A child was found to express the M+N+ phenotype. The mother's phenotype was M+N-, as was the father's. What type of exclusion is evident in this case? A) Direct B) Indirect C) No exclusion D) None of the above

How is HLA serologic testing performed? A) T lymphocytes are harvested and introduced to a panel of test sera specific for antigens of the HLA system. B) B lymphocytes are harvested and introduced to a panel of test sera specific for antigens of the HLA system. C) HLA antigens move through a limited pH gradient and are immobilized, complexed with antibody, and stained. D) DNA is isolated from peripheral white blood cells, fragmented, and hybridized.

In paternity testing, which of the following systems is the first to be tested against samples drawn from the mother, alleged father, and child? A) Rh B) Red blood cell enzymes C) ABO D) Kell

What technology NOT is used to demonstrate the presence of DNA polymorphisms? A) Ion-exchange chromatography B) Polymerase chain reaction C) Restriction fragment length D) Southern blot

When does direct exclusion exist? A) The child possesses a marker that is present in either the mother or the alleged father. B) The alleged father demonstrates heterozygosity for two different alleles in the same system and the child does not demonstrate either. C) The child demonstrates only one marker and the alleged father demonstrates a different single marker. D) A single DNA mismatch is demonstrated between alleged parent and child.

In HLA serologic testing, how are cytotoxic effects of antigen-antibody interactions detected? A) There is visible agglutination, or clumping. B) The cells remain clear. C) Trypan blue or eosin stains the cells because of loss of membrane integrity. D) There is hemolysis.

What is the statistical basis of the Hardy-Weinberg principle? A) Selection of mates is dependent on blood types and therefore is random. B) Selection of mates is dependent on blood types and therefore is biased. C) Selection of mates is independent of blood types and therefore is random. D) Selection of mates is independent of blood types and therefore is biased.

What is the basic unit of inheritance that determines the production or nonproduction of specific markers? A) Antigen B) Chromosome C) Gene D) Locus

Which of the following factors are considered when selecting genetic systems to use for relationship testing? A) The system should be monomorphic. B) Genotypes should be readily deducible from the phenotype. C) Mutation rates should be high. D) Testing methodology should only be available at the State laboratory.

All of the following factors are considered when selecting genetic systems to use for relationship testing EXCEPT: A) Inheritance patterns should be well established. B) The mutation rate should be known and should be low. C) Multiethnic databases of allele frequencies should be available. D) Each genetic system should be known to be genetically dependent.

Which of the following factors are considered when selecting genetic systems to use for relationship testing? A) Testing methodology should be reliable, reproducible, and available in more than one laboratory. B) Markers tested should be stable and not affected by environmental factors, age, disease, reagents, or methodology employed. C) Allelic distributions should provide a high probability of excluding an alleged father. D) All of these

Which of these is NOT one of the classic systems used for parentage testing? A) Duffy B) Kell C) Kidd D) Lewis

Which system has the highest probability of exclusion? A) ABO B) HLA C) MNSs D) Rh

Which system has the highest probability of exclusion? A) RFLP B) SNP C) STR D) These systems have the same PE.

Which statement defines the probability of exclusion (PE)? A) The probability of excluding one who is falsely accused of being related to someone in a given way. B) The PE reflects the probability of including one who is alleged to be the parent. C) The probability of exclusion requires knowledge of the alleged parent's phenotype. D) The PE compares two mutually exclusive hypotheses that are expressed as a likelihood ratio.

Which of these is a restatement of the weight of the evidence for relatedness, expressed in percentage form? A) The probability of exclusion (PE) B) The posterior probability of parentage (PP) C) The relationship index (RI) D) None of these

When can false direct exclusions occur? A) Mutations occur that alter the final product. B) There is a lack of precursor substance. C) There is suppressor activity at a locus unlinked to the one tested. D) All of these

When can false indirect exclusions occur? A) Secondarily in the presence of silent alleles. B) Mutations occur that alter the final product. C) There is a lack of precursor substance. D) All of these

A chimeric state exists in one of the individuals being tested in a paternity case. This can contribute to which type of exclusion? A) Direct B) Indirect C) False direct D) False indirect

Which of these is NOT one of the immunoglobulin allotypes used in classic parentage testing? A) Am B) Gm C) Km D) Pm