Quiz 7: General Pathology
Nursing
Q 1Q 1
A host response to injury that consists of vascular responses, activation of white blood cells, and systemic reactions refers to:
A)Inflammation
B)Regeneration
C)Autoimmune response
D)Angiogenesis
Free
Multiple Choice
A Inflammation is the host response to cellular injury that consists of vascular responses, activation of white blood cells, and systemic reactions.
Q 2Q 2
The inflammatory response consists of a vascular reaction and a cellular reaction. These reactions are mediated by chemical factors derived from plasma proteins or cells.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true
Free
Multiple Choice
A Both statements about inflammation are true. The inflammatory response consists of a vascular reaction and a cellular reaction. These reactions are mediated by chemical factors derived from plasma proteins or cells.
Q 3Q 3
Heat (calor) found during the inflammatory response is caused by:
A)Vasoconstriction of blood vessels
B)Exudation of fluid
C)Increased blood flow
D)Stretching of pain receptors
Free
Multiple Choice
C Heat during the inflammatory process is associated with increased blood flow and the release of chemical mediators .
Q 4Q 4
Acute inflammation is characterized by rapid onset and short duration. It is manifested by the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages, blood vessels, and fibrosis.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 5Q 5
All of the following white blood cells are involved in the immune response EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A)Macrophage
B)Neutrophil
C)Lymphocyte
D)Eosinophil
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 6Q 6
The white blood cell that emigrates to injured tissue and converts to a macrophage is the:
A)Neutrophil
B)Mast cell
C)Lymphocyte
D)Monocyte
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 7Q 7
During the inflammatory response, neutrophils are replaced by monocytes in:
A)2 to 12 hours
B)6 to 12 hours
C)12 to 24 hours
D)24 to 48 hours
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 8Q 8
Phagocytosis is greatly enhanced by:
A)Plasma lectins
B)Complement proteins
C)Opsonins
D)All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 9Q 9
During which phase of phagocytosis does the pH drop?
A)Engulfment
B)Killing and degradation
C)Release of leukocyte products
D)Apoptosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 10Q 10
Chemical mediators bind to specific receptor on target cells. Most are short lived, and harmless.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true, and the second statement is false
D)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 11Q 11
Which chemical mediator produces prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and lipoxins?
A)Arachidonic acid
B)Bradykinin
C)Complement
D)Serotonin
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 12Q 12
Which complement protein enhances phagocytosis by acting as opsonin?
A)C3a
B)C3b
C)C4a
D)C5a
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 13Q 13
Two major cytokines that induce the systemic acute phase responses of infection and injury, including fever, loss of appetite and release of corticosteroids are:
A)Histamine and serotonin
B)Complement and bradykinin
C)Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1
D)Prostaglandins and leukotrienes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 14Q 14
Which chemical mediator is important in the pathogenesis of bronchial asthma?
A)Lipoxins
B)Leukotrienes
C)Prostaglandins
D)Nitric oxide
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 15Q 15
Outcomes of acute inflammation consist of:
A)Complete resolution
B)Healing by connective tissue replacement
C)Progression of tissue response to chronic inflammation
D)All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 16Q 16
In an inflammatory reaction, with infection, the white blood cell count can increase to:
A)4,000 to 10,000/mm3
B)10,000 to 15,000/mm3
C)15,000 to 20,000/mm3
D)20,000 to 25,000/mm3
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 17Q 17
Examples of acute phase proteins include:
A)C-reactive protein and fibrinogen
B)Serum amyloid A and lipoxin
C)Substance P and neurokinin A
D)Hageman factor and fibrinogen
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 18Q 18
Sepsis occurs in severe bacterial infections because large quantities of cytokines cause thrombosis and coagulation, which eventually lead to multiple organ failure.
A)Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B)Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C)The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D)The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E)NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 19Q 19
Examples of systemic diseases affected by chronic inflammation include:
A)Cardiovascular disease and diabetes
B)Cancer and asthma
C)Alzheimer's disease and periodontal disease
D)All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 20Q 20
The formation of new blood vessels in wound healing is:
A)Angiogenesis
B)Granulomatous tissue
C)Granulation tissue
D)Parenchymal cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 21Q 21
Local factors that influence wound healing include all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A)Size and location of wound
B)Early movement
C)Blood supply
D)Infection
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 22Q 22
Granulation tissue represents a hallmark of healing. The amount of granulation tissue that forms depends on the size of the wound and the intensity of the inflammation.
A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 23Q 23
A wound with a narrow incisional space will heal by:
A)Primary intervention
B)Primary intention
C)Secondary intervention
D)Secondary intention
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 24Q 24
The inflammatory reaction is more intense with healing by secondary union because of the presence of a larger clot and the formation of more epidermis in the area.
A)Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B)Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C)The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D)The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E)NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 25Q 25
A complication of wound healing commonly seen in serious burn injuries is:
A)Ulceration
B)Hypertrophic scar
C)Contracture
D)Fibrosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 26Q 26
A complication of wound healing commonly seen in lower extremity wounds with peripheral vascular disease is:
A)Ulceration
B)Hypertrophic scar
C)Contracture
D)Fibrosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 27Q 27
Tissues recover approximately 70% of tensile strength over:
A)1 to 3 weeks
B)4 to 6 weeks
C)7 to 11 weeks
D)12 to 15 weeks
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 28Q 28
Allogenous stem cells are derived from the individual being treated. They may be multipotent or unipotent.
A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 29Q 29
The process of a stem cell from one adult tissue generating to cell types of another tissue is known as:
A)Unipotent
B)Transdifferentiation
C)Undifferentiation
D)Biologic viability
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 30Q 30
The two main categories of stem cells are:
A)Embryonic and pluripotent stem cells
B)Primary and secondary stem cells
C)Embryonic and adult stem cells
D)Somatic and adult stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 31Q 31
The adult stem cells that are isolated from aspirates of liposuction are:
A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 32Q 32
The adult stem cells which are isolated from hematopoietic stem cells and stromal cells are:
A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 33Q 33
The adult stem cells that develop from material created during the development of the nervous system and can differentiate into neural cell lines are:
A)Amniotic fluid stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Dental stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 34Q 34
Dental stem cells can be obtained from:
A)Permanent third molars (wisdom teeth)
B)Pulp of primary teeth
C)Periodontal ligament
D)All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 35Q 35
Stem cells that can differentiate into pancreatic islet beta-cells include:
A)Bone marrow-derived and tooth-derived stem cells
B)Amniotic fluid-derived and tooth-derived stem cells
C)Umbilical cord and bone marrow-derived stem cells
D)Amniotic fluid-derived and umbilical cord stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 36Q 36
All of the following stem cells may differentiate into fat cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Umbilical cord stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 37Q 37
Which of the following stem cells may differentiate into immune cells?
A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Adipose-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Umbilical cord stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 38Q 38
Which of the following are the most commercially available stem cells?
A)Amniotic fluid-derived stem cells
B)Bone marrow-derived stem cells
C)Tooth-derived stem cells
D)Adipose-derived stem cells
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 39Q 39
How many genes do humans have?
A)20,000 to 25,000
B)25,000 to 30,000
C)30,000 to 35,000
D)35,000 to 40,000
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 40Q 40
In approximately what percentage of human DNA is the uniqueness of humans encoded?
A)0.1%
B)0.5%
C)1%
D)5% percent
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 41Q 41
All of the following conditions have a genetic component EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Diabetes
C)Cleft lip
D)Trauma
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 42Q 42
Trisomy is an example of:
A)Genome mutation
B)Chromosome mutation
C)Submicroscopic chromosome mutation
D)Submicroscopic gene mutation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 43Q 43
With autosomal dominant disorders, when some persons inherit the mutant gene but are phenotypically normal, this refers to:
A)Variable expressivity
B)Successive transmission
C)Incomplete penetrance
D)Autosomal inheritance
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 44Q 44
Duchenne muscular dystrophy exemplifies:
A)Autosomal dominant inheritance
B)Autosomal recessive inheritance
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)Multifactorial inheritance
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 45Q 45
Sickle cell anemia exemplifies:
A)Autosomal dominant inheritance
B)Autosomal recessive inheritance
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)Multifactorial inheritance
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 46Q 46
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) analysis is not as stable as deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-based diagnosis. It cannot, as yet, be used to detect and quantify viruses such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or hepatitis C virus.
A)Both statements are TRUE
B)Both statements are FALSE
C)The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE
D)The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 47Q 47
Determining which of two or more diseases with similar signs and symptoms is the one the client is manifesting refers to:
A)Appearance diagnosis
B)Differential diagnosis
C)Definitive diagnosis
D)Working diagnosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 48Q 48
If all diseases except one are eliminated from the differential diagnosis, then that gives the:
A)Appearance diagnosis
B)Preliminary diagnosis
C)Definitive diagnosis
D)Working diagnosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 49Q 49
A client presents with an enlargement of soft tissue. Which conceptual stage of the differential diagnosis process does this represent?
A)Stage 1-classification of the abnormality by primary manifestation
B)Stage 2-listing of secondary features and contributing factors
C)Stage 3-listing of conditions capable of causing primary manifestations
D)Stage 4-elimination of unlikely causes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 50Q 50
A client presents with an ulceration with a pattern of healing followed by recurrence. Which conceptual stage of the differential diagnosis process does this represent?
A)Stage 1-classification of the abnormality by primary manifestation
B)Stage 2-listing of secondary features and contributing factors
C)Stage 3-listing of conditions capable of causing primary manifestations
D)Stage 4-elimination of unlikely causes
Free
Multiple Choice