Question 1

Why is type 2 diabetes associated with an increased risk of sexual dysfunction in older adults?

Accepted Answer

A)Type 2 diabetes can cause both vascular damage and nerve damage that negatively affect sexual arousal and orgasm. Although decreased sex hormone levels, arthritis, and joint pain can contribute to sexual dysfunction in older adults, these conditions are not related to type 2 diabetes. Furthermore, type 2 diabetes does not contribute to atrophy of the reproductive organs.
B)Type 2 diabetes can cause both vascular damage and nerve damage that negatively affect sexual arousal and orgasm. Although decreased sex hormone levels, arthritis, and joint pain can contribute to sexual dysfunction in older adults, these conditions are not related to type 2 diabetes. Furthermore, type 2 diabetes does not contribute to atrophy of the reproductive organs.
C)Type 2 diabetes can cause both vascular damage and nerve damage that negatively affect sexual arousal and orgasm. Although decreased sex hormone levels, arthritis, and joint pain can contribute to sexual dysfunction in older adults, these conditions are not related to type 2 diabetes. Furthermore, type 2 diabetes does not contribute to atrophy of the reproductive organs.
D)Type 2 diabetes can cause both vascular damage and nerve damage that negatively affect sexual arousal and orgasm. Although decreased sex hormone levels, arthritis, and joint pain can contribute to sexual dysfunction in older adults, these conditions are not related to type 2 diabetes. Furthermore, type 2 diabetes does not contribute to atrophy of the reproductive organs.

Question 2

The nurse is teaching a client with infertility about the medication clomiphene (Clomid). Which statement on the part of the client indicates that this teaching has been effective?

Accepted Answer

A)Clomiphene (Clomid)stimulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in the maturation of more ovarian follicles than would normally occur. Clomiphene (Clomid)does not increase estrogen levels, nor does it stimulate secretion of FSH or gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B)Clomiphene (Clomid)stimulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in the maturation of more ovarian follicles than would normally occur. Clomiphene (Clomid)does not increase estrogen levels, nor does it stimulate secretion of FSH or gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
C)Clomiphene (Clomid)stimulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in the maturation of more ovarian follicles than would normally occur. Clomiphene (Clomid)does not increase estrogen levels, nor does it stimulate secretion of FSH or gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
D)Clomiphene (Clomid)stimulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in the maturation of more ovarian follicles than would normally occur. Clomiphene (Clomid)does not increase estrogen levels, nor does it stimulate secretion of FSH or gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Question 3

During an evaluation for infertility, a male client is asked to provide a sperm sample. What information from the client's health history could impact the quality and effectiveness of the client's sperm? Select all that apply.

Accepted Answer

A)The quality and effectiveness of sperm is affected by smoking history, use of over-the-counter medications, and experiencing mumps after adolescence. Activity level and number of siblings are not criteria to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of a man's sperm.
B)The quality and effectiveness of sperm is affected by smoking history, use of over-the-counter medications, and experiencing mumps after adolescence. Activity level and number of siblings are not criteria to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of a man's sperm.
C)The quality and effectiveness of sperm is affected by smoking history, use of over-the-counter medications, and experiencing mumps after adolescence. Activity level and number of siblings are not criteria to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of a man's sperm.
D)The quality and effectiveness of sperm is affected by smoking history, use of over-the-counter medications, and experiencing mumps after adolescence. Activity level and number of siblings are not criteria to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of a man's sperm.
E)The quality and effectiveness of sperm is affected by smoking history, use of over-the-counter medications, and experiencing mumps after adolescence. Activity level and number of siblings are not criteria to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of a man's sperm.

Question 4

A client tells the nurse she plans to use oral contraceptives for birth control. Given this information, which client behavior would cause the nurse the most concern?

Accepted Answer

A)Smoking while taking oral contraceptives increases the client's risk of developing a thrombolytic disorder. Drinking two glasses of wine a day is not a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives, nor is being treated for bipolar disorder. Having several sexual partners does not preclude the use of oral contraceptives, but the client should be advised that oral contraceptives do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections so use of a barrier method is also recommended.
B)Smoking while taking oral contraceptives increases the client's risk of developing a thrombolytic disorder. Drinking two glasses of wine a day is not a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives, nor is being treated for bipolar disorder. Having several sexual partners does not preclude the use of oral contraceptives, but the client should be advised that oral contraceptives do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections so use of a barrier method is also recommended.
C)Smoking while taking oral contraceptives increases the client's risk of developing a thrombolytic disorder. Drinking two glasses of wine a day is not a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives, nor is being treated for bipolar disorder. Having several sexual partners does not preclude the use of oral contraceptives, but the client should be advised that oral contraceptives do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections so use of a barrier method is also recommended.
D)Smoking while taking oral contraceptives increases the client's risk of developing a thrombolytic disorder. Drinking two glasses of wine a day is not a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives, nor is being treated for bipolar disorder. Having several sexual partners does not preclude the use of oral contraceptives, but the client should be advised that oral contraceptives do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections so use of a barrier method is also recommended.

Question 5

A nurse educator is teaching a group of student nurses about problems of infertility and genetic inheritance of disease. Which statement made by a student nurse indicates that teaching has been effective?

Accepted Answer

A)In an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, the individual must have two abnormal genes to be affected. A person's phenotype is the observable expression of his or her traits, and the person's genotype is his or her total genetic makeup. An individual is said to have an autosomal dominant inherited disorder if the disease trait is heterozygous-that is, the abnormal gene overshadows the normal gene of the pair to produce the trait.
B)In an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, the individual must have two abnormal genes to be affected. A person's phenotype is the observable expression of his or her traits, and the person's genotype is his or her total genetic makeup. An individual is said to have an autosomal dominant inherited disorder if the disease trait is heterozygous-that is, the abnormal gene overshadows the normal gene of the pair to produce the trait.
C)In an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, the individual must have two abnormal genes to be affected. A person's phenotype is the observable expression of his or her traits, and the person's genotype is his or her total genetic makeup. An individual is said to have an autosomal dominant inherited disorder if the disease trait is heterozygous-that is, the abnormal gene overshadows the normal gene of the pair to produce the trait.
D)In an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, the individual must have two abnormal genes to be affected. A person's phenotype is the observable expression of his or her traits, and the person's genotype is his or her total genetic makeup. An individual is said to have an autosomal dominant inherited disorder if the disease trait is heterozygous-that is, the abnormal gene overshadows the normal gene of the pair to produce the trait.

Question 6

During a vaginal examination, a woman's cervix and vaginal fornices are found to have a bluish cast to them. This finding suggests that the client

Accepted Answer

A)A bluish color to the cervix and vaginal fornices may be a sign of pregnancy. A pale cervix would be suggestive of anemia. In some women, menopause may cause the vaginal mucosa to become pale and dry, but it would not result in bluish coloration. Similarly, pelvic infection is unlikely to cause the cervix or vaginal mucosa to take on a bluish tint.
B)A bluish color to the cervix and vaginal fornices may be a sign of pregnancy. A pale cervix would be suggestive of anemia. In some women, menopause may cause the vaginal mucosa to become pale and dry, but it would not result in bluish coloration. Similarly, pelvic infection is unlikely to cause the cervix or vaginal mucosa to take on a bluish tint.
C)A bluish color to the cervix and vaginal fornices may be a sign of pregnancy. A pale cervix would be suggestive of anemia. In some women, menopause may cause the vaginal mucosa to become pale and dry, but it would not result in bluish coloration. Similarly, pelvic infection is unlikely to cause the cervix or vaginal mucosa to take on a bluish tint.
D)A bluish color to the cervix and vaginal fornices may be a sign of pregnancy. A pale cervix would be suggestive of anemia. In some women, menopause may cause the vaginal mucosa to become pale and dry, but it would not result in bluish coloration. Similarly, pelvic infection is unlikely to cause the cervix or vaginal mucosa to take on a bluish tint.

Question 7

A female client complains of having a "strange discharge" from her vagina and "stinging" when voiding urine. Which diagnostic test(s)would be useful to aid in the diagnosis of this client's disorder? Select all that apply.

Accepted Answer

A)The client is complaining of a strange discharge from her vagina, which may be indicative of infection. A Papanicolaou test would therefore be useful because it can diagnose certain types of infection. The client is also complaining of stinging with urination, so a urine culture would be helpful to rule out a urinary tract infection as the cause of the urinary pain. This client's symptoms are not associated with pregnancy, so a pregnancy test would not be useful. The remaining diagnostic tests listed here may or may not help diagnose this client's health problem.
B)The client is complaining of a strange discharge from her vagina, which may be indicative of infection. A Papanicolaou test would therefore be useful because it can diagnose certain types of infection. The client is also complaining of stinging with urination, so a urine culture would be helpful to rule out a urinary tract infection as the cause of the urinary pain. This client's symptoms are not associated with pregnancy, so a pregnancy test would not be useful. The remaining diagnostic tests listed here may or may not help diagnose this client's health problem.
C)The client is complaining of a strange discharge from her vagina, which may be indicative of infection. A Papanicolaou test would therefore be useful because it can diagnose certain types of infection. The client is also complaining of stinging with urination, so a urine culture would be helpful to rule out a urinary tract infection as the cause of the urinary pain. This client's symptoms are not associated with pregnancy, so a pregnancy test would not be useful. The remaining diagnostic tests listed here may or may not help diagnose this client's health problem.
D)The client is complaining of a strange discharge from her vagina, which may be indicative of infection. A Papanicolaou test would therefore be useful because it can diagnose certain types of infection. The client is also complaining of stinging with urination, so a urine culture would be helpful to rule out a urinary tract infection as the cause of the urinary pain. This client's symptoms are not associated with pregnancy, so a pregnancy test would not be useful. The remaining diagnostic tests listed here may or may not help diagnose this client's health problem.
E)The client is complaining of a strange discharge from her vagina, which may be indicative of infection. A Papanicolaou test would therefore be useful because it can diagnose certain types of infection. The client is also complaining of stinging with urination, so a urine culture would be helpful to rule out a urinary tract infection as the cause of the urinary pain. This client's symptoms are not associated with pregnancy, so a pregnancy test would not be useful. The remaining diagnostic tests listed here may or may not help diagnose this client's health problem.

Question 8

During a health history, the nurse learns that a female client has been trying to conceive for 2 years and does not understand why she cannot become pregnant. Which risk factors for infertility should the nurse assess for in this client? Select all that apply.

Accepted Answer

A)Risk factors for female infertility include excess alcohol consumption, poor diet, athletic training, or being infected with a sexually transmitted infection. Employment status is not a risk factor for female infertility.
B)Risk factors for female infertility include excess alcohol consumption, poor diet, athletic training, or being infected with a sexually transmitted infection. Employment status is not a risk factor for female infertility.
C)Risk factors for female infertility include excess alcohol consumption, poor diet, athletic training, or being infected with a sexually transmitted infection. Employment status is not a risk factor for female infertility.
D)Risk factors for female infertility include excess alcohol consumption, poor diet, athletic training, or being infected with a sexually transmitted infection. Employment status is not a risk factor for female infertility.
E)Risk factors for female infertility include excess alcohol consumption, poor diet, athletic training, or being infected with a sexually transmitted infection. Employment status is not a risk factor for female infertility.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true with regard to human sexuality?

Accepted Answer

A)Intersex individuals are people who have contradictions among their chromosomal gender, gonadal gender, internal sex organs, and external genital appearance, whereas transgender individuals are people whose gender identity and/or expression differs from the gender they were assigned at birth. In the past, transgender individuals were often referred to as transsexual, although use of this term is now usually limited to people who have changed or seek to change their sexual anatomy through medical interventions. Some-but not all-transgender individuals are affected by a condition called gender dysphoria, which involves strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one's assigned gender. Regardless of terminology and diagnoses, all transgender individuals are at increased risk for violence, discrimination, poverty, and limited access to healthcare.
B)Intersex individuals are people who have contradictions among their chromosomal gender, gonadal gender, internal sex organs, and external genital appearance, whereas transgender individuals are people whose gender identity and/or expression differs from the gender they were assigned at birth. In the past, transgender individuals were often referred to as transsexual, although use of this term is now usually limited to people who have changed or seek to change their sexual anatomy through medical interventions. Some-but not all-transgender individuals are affected by a condition called gender dysphoria, which involves strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one's assigned gender. Regardless of terminology and diagnoses, all transgender individuals are at increased risk for violence, discrimination, poverty, and limited access to healthcare.
C)Intersex individuals are people who have contradictions among their chromosomal gender, gonadal gender, internal sex organs, and external genital appearance, whereas transgender individuals are people whose gender identity and/or expression differs from the gender they were assigned at birth. In the past, transgender individuals were often referred to as transsexual, although use of this term is now usually limited to people who have changed or seek to change their sexual anatomy through medical interventions. Some-but not all-transgender individuals are affected by a condition called gender dysphoria, which involves strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one's assigned gender. Regardless of terminology and diagnoses, all transgender individuals are at increased risk for violence, discrimination, poverty, and limited access to healthcare.
D)Intersex individuals are people who have contradictions among their chromosomal gender, gonadal gender, internal sex organs, and external genital appearance, whereas transgender individuals are people whose gender identity and/or expression differs from the gender they were assigned at birth. In the past, transgender individuals were often referred to as transsexual, although use of this term is now usually limited to people who have changed or seek to change their sexual anatomy through medical interventions. Some-but not all-transgender individuals are affected by a condition called gender dysphoria, which involves strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one's assigned gender. Regardless of terminology and diagnoses, all transgender individuals are at increased risk for violence, discrimination, poverty, and limited access to healthcare.

Question 10

A female client tells the nurse that she does not want to have children because there is a history of Down syndrome in her family. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her response to this client?

Accepted Answer

A)Down syndrome is the most common trisomy abnormality seen in children. It is the product of the union of a normal egg or sperm with an egg or sperm that has an extra chromosome. This syndrome can occur at any time in a childbearing client of any age. Although children born with Down syndrome have a variety of physical ailments, advances in medical science have extended their life expectancy. The nurse should not provide an opinion about giving birth to a baby with birth defects.
B)Down syndrome is the most common trisomy abnormality seen in children. It is the product of the union of a normal egg or sperm with an egg or sperm that has an extra chromosome. This syndrome can occur at any time in a childbearing client of any age. Although children born with Down syndrome have a variety of physical ailments, advances in medical science have extended their life expectancy. The nurse should not provide an opinion about giving birth to a baby with birth defects.
C)Down syndrome is the most common trisomy abnormality seen in children. It is the product of the union of a normal egg or sperm with an egg or sperm that has an extra chromosome. This syndrome can occur at any time in a childbearing client of any age. Although children born with Down syndrome have a variety of physical ailments, advances in medical science have extended their life expectancy. The nurse should not provide an opinion about giving birth to a baby with birth defects.
D)Down syndrome is the most common trisomy abnormality seen in children. It is the product of the union of a normal egg or sperm with an egg or sperm that has an extra chromosome. This syndrome can occur at any time in a childbearing client of any age. Although children born with Down syndrome have a variety of physical ailments, advances in medical science have extended their life expectancy. The nurse should not provide an opinion about giving birth to a baby with birth defects.

Question 11

A female client tells the nurse she would like to wait to start a family, even though her partner seems interested in having children in the near future. The client then asks the nurse what she should do. Which response from the nurse is best?

Accepted Answer

A)Making the decision to have children is the first step a couple makes in the process of conception. Sometimes one individual wishes to have a child but the other does not. In these situations, open discussion is essential to reach a mutually acceptable decision. Telling the client that she does not need to start a family if she doesn't want to ignores the issue of the partner's desire for children. Asking what the client would do if she became pregnant now does not address the client's desire to wait to start a family. Suggesting the client babysit a friend's child would be a strategy to help a person decide if he or she wants to have a family, but it does not address the client and spouse's current issue.
B)Making the decision to have children is the first step a couple makes in the process of conception. Sometimes one individual wishes to have a child but the other does not. In these situations, open discussion is essential to reach a mutually acceptable decision. Telling the client that she does not need to start a family if she doesn't want to ignores the issue of the partner's desire for children. Asking what the client would do if she became pregnant now does not address the client's desire to wait to start a family. Suggesting the client babysit a friend's child would be a strategy to help a person decide if he or she wants to have a family, but it does not address the client and spouse's current issue.
C)Making the decision to have children is the first step a couple makes in the process of conception. Sometimes one individual wishes to have a child but the other does not. In these situations, open discussion is essential to reach a mutually acceptable decision. Telling the client that she does not need to start a family if she doesn't want to ignores the issue of the partner's desire for children. Asking what the client would do if she became pregnant now does not address the client's desire to wait to start a family. Suggesting the client babysit a friend's child would be a strategy to help a person decide if he or she wants to have a family, but it does not address the client and spouse's current issue.
D)Making the decision to have children is the first step a couple makes in the process of conception. Sometimes one individual wishes to have a child but the other does not. In these situations, open discussion is essential to reach a mutually acceptable decision. Telling the client that she does not need to start a family if she doesn't want to ignores the issue of the partner's desire for children. Asking what the client would do if she became pregnant now does not address the client's desire to wait to start a family. Suggesting the client babysit a friend's child would be a strategy to help a person decide if he or she wants to have a family, but it does not address the client and spouse's current issue.

Question 12

A female client is prescribed an androgen medication to treat an estrogen-sensitive type of breast cancer. What should the nurse instruct the client about this medication? Select all that apply.

Accepted Answer

A)Androgen hormone replacements may be used to treat estrogen-dependent cancers. The nurse should instruct female clients about the risk of developing secondary male sex characteristics when taking this type of medication. Androgen medications also affect body weight, so the nurse should instruct the client to monitor her weight on a weekly basis. Increased risk of multiple births is associated with female infertility medications, and increased risk of calf pain or dyspnea is associated with estrogen hormone replacement therapy. Also, androgen medications do not need to be taken with food.
B)Androgen hormone replacements may be used to treat estrogen-dependent cancers. The nurse should instruct female clients about the risk of developing secondary male sex characteristics when taking this type of medication. Androgen medications also affect body weight, so the nurse should instruct the client to monitor her weight on a weekly basis. Increased risk of multiple births is associated with female infertility medications, and increased risk of calf pain or dyspnea is associated with estrogen hormone replacement therapy. Also, androgen medications do not need to be taken with food.
C)Androgen hormone replacements may be used to treat estrogen-dependent cancers. The nurse should instruct female clients about the risk of developing secondary male sex characteristics when taking this type of medication. Androgen medications also affect body weight, so the nurse should instruct the client to monitor her weight on a weekly basis. Increased risk of multiple births is associated with female infertility medications, and increased risk of calf pain or dyspnea is associated with estrogen hormone replacement therapy. Also, androgen medications do not need to be taken with food.
D)Androgen hormone replacements may be used to treat estrogen-dependent cancers. The nurse should instruct female clients about the risk of developing secondary male sex characteristics when taking this type of medication. Androgen medications also affect body weight, so the nurse should instruct the client to monitor her weight on a weekly basis. Increased risk of multiple births is associated with female infertility medications, and increased risk of calf pain or dyspnea is associated with estrogen hormone replacement therapy. Also, androgen medications do not need to be taken with food.
E)Androgen hormone replacements may be used to treat estrogen-dependent cancers. The nurse should instruct female clients about the risk of developing secondary male sex characteristics when taking this type of medication. Androgen medications also affect body weight, so the nurse should instruct the client to monitor her weight on a weekly basis. Increased risk of multiple births is associated with female infertility medications, and increased risk of calf pain or dyspnea is associated with estrogen hormone replacement therapy. Also, androgen medications do not need to be taken with food.

Question 13

A client is prescribed an oral contraceptive that contains estrogen and progesterone. What information should the nurse include when educating the client about this contraceptive? Select all that apply.

Accepted Answer

A)There are a variety of possible side effects when taking oral contraceptives that contain both estrogen and progesterone. The estrogen component of these contraceptives may cause headaches, nausea, breast tenderness, and an increase in blood pressure. The progesterone portion may cause acne, oily skin, an increase in appetite, and weight gain.
B)There are a variety of possible side effects when taking oral contraceptives that contain both estrogen and progesterone. The estrogen component of these contraceptives may cause headaches, nausea, breast tenderness, and an increase in blood pressure. The progesterone portion may cause acne, oily skin, an increase in appetite, and weight gain.
C)There are a variety of possible side effects when taking oral contraceptives that contain both estrogen and progesterone. The estrogen component of these contraceptives may cause headaches, nausea, breast tenderness, and an increase in blood pressure. The progesterone portion may cause acne, oily skin, an increase in appetite, and weight gain.
D)There are a variety of possible side effects when taking oral contraceptives that contain both estrogen and progesterone. The estrogen component of these contraceptives may cause headaches, nausea, breast tenderness, and an increase in blood pressure. The progesterone portion may cause acne, oily skin, an increase in appetite, and weight gain.
E)There are a variety of possible side effects when taking oral contraceptives that contain both estrogen and progesterone. The estrogen component of these contraceptives may cause headaches, nausea, breast tenderness, and an increase in blood pressure. The progesterone portion may cause acne, oily skin, an increase in appetite, and weight gain.

Question 14

A community health nurse is educating a group of teenage girls about the prevention of dating violence. Which statement should the nurse include in teaching?

Accepted Answer

A)Early warning signs that a male is at risk of perpetrating dating violence include jealous and possessive behaviors (such as monitoring a partner's whereabouts); ownership of weapons; and a history of aggressive behavior. Men who believe that women should be submissive are also more likely to engage in dating violence, even if their partners behave submissively. Encouraging women to act submissively thus not only places them at greater risk of violence, but erodes their sense of agency and self-worth.
B)Early warning signs that a male is at risk of perpetrating dating violence include jealous and possessive behaviors (such as monitoring a partner's whereabouts); ownership of weapons; and a history of aggressive behavior. Men who believe that women should be submissive are also more likely to engage in dating violence, even if their partners behave submissively. Encouraging women to act submissively thus not only places them at greater risk of violence, but erodes their sense of agency and self-worth.
C)Early warning signs that a male is at risk of perpetrating dating violence include jealous and possessive behaviors (such as monitoring a partner's whereabouts); ownership of weapons; and a history of aggressive behavior. Men who believe that women should be submissive are also more likely to engage in dating violence, even if their partners behave submissively. Encouraging women to act submissively thus not only places them at greater risk of violence, but erodes their sense of agency and self-worth.
D)Early warning signs that a male is at risk of perpetrating dating violence include jealous and possessive behaviors (such as monitoring a partner's whereabouts); ownership of weapons; and a history of aggressive behavior. Men who believe that women should be submissive are also more likely to engage in dating violence, even if their partners behave submissively. Encouraging women to act submissively thus not only places them at greater risk of violence, but erodes their sense of agency and self-worth.

Question 15

A nurse is caring for a client who wants more information about fertility awareness-based contraceptive methods. Which statement made by the nurse provides the client with correct information?

Accepted Answer

A)Fertility awareness-based methods, also known as natural family planning, are based on an understanding of the changes that occur throughout a woman's ovulatory cycle. For women, the fertility window occurs between days 8 and 19 of 26- to 32-day cycles. The calendar rhythm method, also called the standard days method, is based on the assumption that ovulation tends to occur about 14 days before the start of a woman's next menstrual period. To use this method, the woman must record her menstrual cycles for 6 months to identify the shortest and longest cycles. The calendar method is the least reliable of the fertility awareness methods.
B)Fertility awareness-based methods, also known as natural family planning, are based on an understanding of the changes that occur throughout a woman's ovulatory cycle. For women, the fertility window occurs between days 8 and 19 of 26- to 32-day cycles. The calendar rhythm method, also called the standard days method, is based on the assumption that ovulation tends to occur about 14 days before the start of a woman's next menstrual period. To use this method, the woman must record her menstrual cycles for 6 months to identify the shortest and longest cycles. The calendar method is the least reliable of the fertility awareness methods.
C)Fertility awareness-based methods, also known as natural family planning, are based on an understanding of the changes that occur throughout a woman's ovulatory cycle. For women, the fertility window occurs between days 8 and 19 of 26- to 32-day cycles. The calendar rhythm method, also called the standard days method, is based on the assumption that ovulation tends to occur about 14 days before the start of a woman's next menstrual period. To use this method, the woman must record her menstrual cycles for 6 months to identify the shortest and longest cycles. The calendar method is the least reliable of the fertility awareness methods.
D)Fertility awareness-based methods, also known as natural family planning, are based on an understanding of the changes that occur throughout a woman's ovulatory cycle. For women, the fertility window occurs between days 8 and 19 of 26- to 32-day cycles. The calendar rhythm method, also called the standard days method, is based on the assumption that ovulation tends to occur about 14 days before the start of a woman's next menstrual period. To use this method, the woman must record her menstrual cycles for 6 months to identify the shortest and longest cycles. The calendar method is the least reliable of the fertility awareness methods.

Question 16

A menopausal client is concerned that intercourse with her spouse has become increasingly painful. What should the nurse explain about the changes in this client's body after menopause?

Accepted Answer

A)Older women remain capable of multiple orgasms and may, in fact, experience an increase in sexual desire after menopause. However, vaginal lubrication and elasticity decrease with menopause and the accompanying decline in estrogen, and this can lead to painful intercourse. The client's concerns are not related to cervical mucus.
B)Older women remain capable of multiple orgasms and may, in fact, experience an increase in sexual desire after menopause. However, vaginal lubrication and elasticity decrease with menopause and the accompanying decline in estrogen, and this can lead to painful intercourse. The client's concerns are not related to cervical mucus.
C)Older women remain capable of multiple orgasms and may, in fact, experience an increase in sexual desire after menopause. However, vaginal lubrication and elasticity decrease with menopause and the accompanying decline in estrogen, and this can lead to painful intercourse. The client's concerns are not related to cervical mucus.
D)Older women remain capable of multiple orgasms and may, in fact, experience an increase in sexual desire after menopause. However, vaginal lubrication and elasticity decrease with menopause and the accompanying decline in estrogen, and this can lead to painful intercourse. The client's concerns are not related to cervical mucus.

Question 17

An older adult client tells the nurse that he still has erections and wants to have sex with his wife, but she does not have the same interest in sexual activity as he does. What should the nurse do to assist this client?

Accepted Answer

A)Lack of interest in sex is not a normal part of the aging process and suggests that the client's wife is experiencing sexual dysfunction. Thus, the nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to encourage the client to ask his wife to discuss the lack of interest with her healthcare provider as a starting point. The other choices are inappropriate and should not be provided to the client.
B)Lack of interest in sex is not a normal part of the aging process and suggests that the client's wife is experiencing sexual dysfunction. Thus, the nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to encourage the client to ask his wife to discuss the lack of interest with her healthcare provider as a starting point. The other choices are inappropriate and should not be provided to the client.
C)Lack of interest in sex is not a normal part of the aging process and suggests that the client's wife is experiencing sexual dysfunction. Thus, the nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to encourage the client to ask his wife to discuss the lack of interest with her healthcare provider as a starting point. The other choices are inappropriate and should not be provided to the client.
D)Lack of interest in sex is not a normal part of the aging process and suggests that the client's wife is experiencing sexual dysfunction. Thus, the nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to encourage the client to ask his wife to discuss the lack of interest with her healthcare provider as a starting point. The other choices are inappropriate and should not be provided to the client.

Question 18

A female client tells the nurse she is having difficulty with sexual relations because of a recent weight gain. When planning this client's care, the nurse should prioritize interventions related to which of the following areas?

Accepted Answer

A)An individual's body image is constantly changing. How people feel about their bodies is related to sexuality, and people who have a poor body image may respond negatively to sexual arousal. This is what the client is experiencing. Sexual self-concept determines the gender and kinds of individuals to whom the person is attracted; the individual's values about when, where, how, and with whom he or she expresses his or her sexuality; and the individual's ability to freely choose sexual partners. Gender identity refers to an individual's self-image as a male, female, or transgender person. Gender-role behavior is the outward expression of an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness, as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior.
B)An individual's body image is constantly changing. How people feel about their bodies is related to sexuality, and people who have a poor body image may respond negatively to sexual arousal. This is what the client is experiencing. Sexual self-concept determines the gender and kinds of individuals to whom the person is attracted; the individual's values about when, where, how, and with whom he or she expresses his or her sexuality; and the individual's ability to freely choose sexual partners. Gender identity refers to an individual's self-image as a male, female, or transgender person. Gender-role behavior is the outward expression of an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness, as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior.
C)An individual's body image is constantly changing. How people feel about their bodies is related to sexuality, and people who have a poor body image may respond negatively to sexual arousal. This is what the client is experiencing. Sexual self-concept determines the gender and kinds of individuals to whom the person is attracted; the individual's values about when, where, how, and with whom he or she expresses his or her sexuality; and the individual's ability to freely choose sexual partners. Gender identity refers to an individual's self-image as a male, female, or transgender person. Gender-role behavior is the outward expression of an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness, as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior.
D)An individual's body image is constantly changing. How people feel about their bodies is related to sexuality, and people who have a poor body image may respond negatively to sexual arousal. This is what the client is experiencing. Sexual self-concept determines the gender and kinds of individuals to whom the person is attracted; the individual's values about when, where, how, and with whom he or she expresses his or her sexuality; and the individual's ability to freely choose sexual partners. Gender identity refers to an individual's self-image as a male, female, or transgender person. Gender-role behavior is the outward expression of an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness, as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior.

Question 19

________ is a form of sex therapy that involves several stages of guided touching in which clients and their partners are encouraged to explore each other's bodies.

Accepted Answer

A)Sensate focus is a type of sex therapy that involves several stages of guided touching. With this method, clients and their partners are encouraged to explore each other's bodies, beginning with areas other than the breasts and genitals, then gradually incorporating these areas as they progress to full intercourse. Directed masturbation is a similar technique, although it is used by clients who do not wish to have a partner participate in the therapeutic process. Integrated sex therapy is a method that involves whatever combination of medical, behavioral, and cognitive techniques the provider(s)determine will be most beneficial to a client's particular problem. Finally, progressive desensitization is not a type of sex therapy.
B)Sensate focus is a type of sex therapy that involves several stages of guided touching. With this method, clients and their partners are encouraged to explore each other's bodies, beginning with areas other than the breasts and genitals, then gradually incorporating these areas as they progress to full intercourse. Directed masturbation is a similar technique, although it is used by clients who do not wish to have a partner participate in the therapeutic process. Integrated sex therapy is a method that involves whatever combination of medical, behavioral, and cognitive techniques the provider(s)determine will be most beneficial to a client's particular problem. Finally, progressive desensitization is not a type of sex therapy.
C)Sensate focus is a type of sex therapy that involves several stages of guided touching. With this method, clients and their partners are encouraged to explore each other's bodies, beginning with areas other than the breasts and genitals, then gradually incorporating these areas as they progress to full intercourse. Directed masturbation is a similar technique, although it is used by clients who do not wish to have a partner participate in the therapeutic process. Integrated sex therapy is a method that involves whatever combination of medical, behavioral, and cognitive techniques the provider(s)determine will be most beneficial to a client's particular problem. Finally, progressive desensitization is not a type of sex therapy.
D)Sensate focus is a type of sex therapy that involves several stages of guided touching. With this method, clients and their partners are encouraged to explore each other's bodies, beginning with areas other than the breasts and genitals, then gradually incorporating these areas as they progress to full intercourse. Directed masturbation is a similar technique, although it is used by clients who do not wish to have a partner participate in the therapeutic process. Integrated sex therapy is a method that involves whatever combination of medical, behavioral, and cognitive techniques the provider(s)determine will be most beneficial to a client's particular problem. Finally, progressive desensitization is not a type of sex therapy.

Question 20

During a health history, the nurse learns that a male client has a recent onset of erectile dysfunction (ED). Which assessment question is likely to elicit the most useful information about factors that may be contributing to the client's ED?

Accepted Answer

A)The client's health history can provide clues regarding the underlying cause of the erectile dysfunction (ED). The question "For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?" would most likely provide useful information as to possible causes for the recent onset of the disorder. Asking the client whether ED occurs often will not help identify the cause of the problem, nor will asking the client how his partner feels about the situation. Inquiring about the client's medication use would be useful; however, the inquiry should be phrased as an open-ended question and not a closed-ended question, as it is here.
B)The client's health history can provide clues regarding the underlying cause of the erectile dysfunction (ED). The question "For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?" would most likely provide useful information as to possible causes for the recent onset of the disorder. Asking the client whether ED occurs often will not help identify the cause of the problem, nor will asking the client how his partner feels about the situation. Inquiring about the client's medication use would be useful; however, the inquiry should be phrased as an open-ended question and not a closed-ended question, as it is here.
C)The client's health history can provide clues regarding the underlying cause of the erectile dysfunction (ED). The question "For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?" would most likely provide useful information as to possible causes for the recent onset of the disorder. Asking the client whether ED occurs often will not help identify the cause of the problem, nor will asking the client how his partner feels about the situation. Inquiring about the client's medication use would be useful; however, the inquiry should be phrased as an open-ended question and not a closed-ended question, as it is here.
D)The client's health history can provide clues regarding the underlying cause of the erectile dysfunction (ED). The question "For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?" would most likely provide useful information as to possible causes for the recent onset of the disorder. Asking the client whether ED occurs often will not help identify the cause of the problem, nor will asking the client how his partner feels about the situation. Inquiring about the client's medication use would be useful; however, the inquiry should be phrased as an open-ended question and not a closed-ended question, as it is here.

Quiz 19: Sexuality