Question 1

Polypharmacy is one of the few reversible and preventable causes of iatrogenic harm.

Accepted Answer

Polypharmacy, the use of multiple medications by a patient, can lead to adverse drug interactions and side effects. By reviewing and adjusting a patient's medication regimen, healthcare providers can often prevent or reverse these harmful effects.

Question 2

Nurses can recommend calcium and vitamin D be prescribed to older adults as there is evidence supporting its use to prevent falls.

Accepted Answer

Nurses can recommend calcium and vitamin D supplements as they have been shown to improve bone health and may reduce the risk of falls in older adults by improving muscle function and bone strength.

Question 3

The use of opioid pain medications is a stronger risk factor for delirium than undertreated pain.

Accepted Answer

The answer of The use of opioid pain medications is...

Question 4

Anxiety and depression often go together in older adults and should be treated together.

Accepted Answer

Anxiety and depression frequently co-occur in older adults, and addressing both conditions simultaneously can lead to more effective treatment outcomes.

Question 5

Older adults with a BMI of 21 or lower and 27 or higher are at risk for hydration issues.

Accepted Answer

Older adults with a BMI of 21 or lower may have less body fat and muscle mass, affecting fluid balance, while those with a BMI of 27 or higher may have more body fat, which can also impact hydration.

Question 6

In addition to an active RN license, how many hours of clinical practice in the specialty area of gerontological nursing must be completed over a 3-year period in order to meet the eligibility criteria for certification through the ANCC?

Accepted Answer

The ANCC requires 2,000 hours of clinical practice in the specialty area of gerontological nursing over a 3-year period for certification eligibility.

Question 7

For the first time in history, the life span of persons with what medical condition is similar to the average lifespan?

Accepted Answer

The answer of For the first time in history, the...

Question 8

In the case of strokes, the CT scan or MRI should ideally be done within what time period so that appropriate emergency measures may be initiated to prevent further brain damage?

Accepted Answer

The CT scan or MRI should ideally be done within 90 minutes of the onset of stroke symptoms to allow for the initiation of appropriate emergency measures to prevent further brain damage.

Question 9

The two classes of medications that are currently approved for the treatment of Alzheimer's dementia, cholinesterase inhibitors and N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonists, both provide therapeutic effect by acting on which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Cholinesterase inhibitors and NMDA receptor antagonists both act on neurotransmitter systems. Cholinesterase inhibitors increase acetylcholine levels, while NMDA receptor antagonists modulate glutamate activity.

Question 10

What part of Medicare has a "doughnut hole" time of year when beneficiaries hit a maximum prescription coverage spending limit that stops their coverage but then picks up above a much higher amount?

Accepted Answer

Medicare Part D, which covers prescription drugs, has a coverage gap known as the "doughnut hole." During this period, beneficiaries may pay higher out-of-pocket costs for their medications until they reach the catastrophic coverage threshold.

Question 11

Which of the following is one of the primary proactive safety promotion interventions used by hospital nurses?

Accepted Answer

Surveillance is a proactive safety promotion intervention as it involves continuous monitoring to prevent adverse events.

Question 12

Nicknamed "Feng Shui for the Frontal Lobe," basic nursing interventions to reduce stimulation can significantly reduce which of the following in individuals with cognitive impairment?

Accepted Answer

Reducing stimulation through nursing interventions can help decrease agitation in individuals with cognitive impairment, as it creates a calmer environment that can help soothe and settle the individual.

Question 13

Symptoms consistent with depression that occur for the first time later in life are referred to as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Late-onset depression refers to depressive symptoms that appear for the first time in an individual's later years, typically after the age of 60.

Question 14

Which of the following medications would be appropriate for treating overflow incontinence in men that is the result of bladder neck obstruction from benign prostatic hypertrophy?

Accepted Answer

Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 blocker that helps relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow and reducing symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy, which can cause overflow incontinence.

Question 15

What stage of the sleep architecture refers to the shift from full alertness to drowsiness?

Accepted Answer

Stage W, also known as wakefulness, refers to the transition from full alertness to drowsiness.

Question 16

The pathology of narcolepsy is associated with loss of hypothalamic neurons that contain what substance?

Accepted Answer

Narcolepsy is associated with the loss of hypothalamic neurons that produce hypocretin (also known as orexin), which is crucial for regulating wakefulness and sleep.

Question 17

What medical condition can cause hypermetabolism, which can lead to weight loss?

Accepted Answer

Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland is overactive, producing excess thyroid hormones, which can increase metabolism and lead to weight loss.

Question 18

What clinical screening tool is a simple and practical nutrition screening tool that combines three easily obtainable elements of lymphocyte count, albumin, and weight change?

Accepted Answer

The Instant Nutritional Assessment (INA) is a simple and practical nutrition screening tool that combines lymphocyte count, albumin, and weight change.

Question 19

Which of the following Braden scores would indicate that a patient is at very high risk at developing pressure ulcers?

Accepted Answer

A Braden score of 8 indicates a very high risk for developing pressure ulcers, as lower scores represent higher risk.

Question 20

In order to prevent the development of pressure ulcers, offloading would be achieved through which of the following actions?

Accepted Answer

The answer of In order to prevent the development of...

Quiz 29: Appendix