Quiz 4: An Overview of Accounting for Assets

If an asset's carrying amount is less than its recoverable amount, the increase in value is recognised as a gain.

The AASB Framework allows use of different measurement basis for similar assets as long as this is disclosed in the summary of accounting policies adopted in the notes to the accounts.

AASB 101 "Presentation of Financial Statements" requires all current and non-current assets to be presented in the balance sheet in the order of maturity.

AASB 116 "Property, Plant and Equipment" allows both cost and revaluation models to be applied as a measurement basis to one class of property, plant and equipment.

Previously written-off assets are allowed to be reinstated under AASB 136 "Impairment of Assets".

AASB 108"Accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and errors" requires material prior period errors to be corrected retrospectively, in the period when the error was discovered.

A reporting entity must have legal ownership of an asset to record it as such within its balance sheet:

The term 'probable' is described in AASB Framework as meaning that the chance of the future economic benefits arising is more likely rather than less likely:

Current generally accepted accounting practices require one approach to measurement to be applied to all classes of assets:

The sum of the total assets of an entity will typically reflect their cost under current generally accepted accounting practices:

For an asset to be recognised, it is required to possess a cost or other value that can be measured exactly:

Advertising expenditures are typically expensed as incurred because the future economic benefits are uncertain to occur:

The preserved body of famous Australian racehorse Phar Lap is an example of a heritage asset:

For an asset to be recognised it is essential that it be acquired by purchase or exchange of another asset:

Future economic benefits can only be derived from the sale of an asset:

If the expected value in use of an asset is more than its market value, then it is expected that the entity will retain the asset:

Relevance and reliability are important considerations for determining the format to use for the purposes of balance sheet presentation:

When an asset's recoverable amount is less than the asset's cost, the asset's cost must be written down to recognise an impairment loss:

According to the AASB Framework an asset should have a number of characteristics, including: A) It must be owned by the entity. B) It must be expected to provide future economic benefits to the entity. C) The transaction giving rise to the ownership must have already occurred. D) The future economic benefits must be very likely to eventuate. E) All of the given answers.

The description of 'probable' in the AASB Framework means that: A) Assessments of the degree of uncertainty attaching to the flow of economic benefits are made on the basis of evidence. B) Assets will be recognised if the expected probability of future benefits arising is less than 50 per cent. C) A high degree of professional judgement may be required in preparing accounting reports. D) Assessments of the degree of uncertainty and a high degree of professional judgement may be required in preparing accounting reports.

If it is not probable that expenditure will generate future benefits, the accounting treatment should bE. A) To treat it as a deferred asset. B) To amortise it over a period of no more than two operating cycles. C) To expense it. D) To treat it as an unearned revenue. E) None of the given answers.

Bruno Enterprises has constructed a heavy weight hydraulic lifter that it plans to use in maintaining and repairing its fleet of 18 wheeler trucks. The costs to build the lifter were wages of $11 000, raw materials of $19 000, depreciation of $4 000 and supplies of $1 000. Wages have not yet been paid. The equipment is judged to have probable future economic benefits of greater than its cost. What would be the accounting entry to record this event? A) B) C) D) E) None of the given answers.

Bella Enterprises recorded as an asset a piece of equipment it purchased for $13 000 this period. No depreciation has been recorded as yet and it has been revealed that it is not probable that the equipment will generate future economic benefits. What is the appropriate accounting entry? A) B) C) D) E) None of the given answers.

The decision to expense or capitalise an item is important because. A) It may have direct implications for the value of the organisation and wealth of managers. B) It may impact on contractual arrangements that are based on accounting numbers related to profits and/or assets. C) It may give managers scope to maximise personal wealth, in line with Positive Accounting Theories. D) The decision should only be based on providing an unbiased report of the company. E) All of the given answers.

In a previous period Banshee Ltd wrote-off its 'dynamic mover' equipment, but new information has shown that it is probable that the future economic benefits exceed its cost of $40 000. What is the appropriate accounting entry? A) B) C) D) E) None of the given answers.

Land and buildings may be valued at: A) Recoverable amount. B) Opportunity cost. C) Fair value. D) All of the given answers. E) Recoverable amount or fair value.

The class of assets that is to be valued at lower than cost or net realisable value is: A) Non-current assets. B) Debtors. C) Self-generating and regenerating assets. D) Inventories. E) All of the given answers.

Which of the following assets are recognised at fair value? A) Biological assets. B) Revalued property, plant equipment. C) Assets under a finance lease. D) All of the given answers. E) Biological assets and revalued property, plant equipment.

Heritage assets have characteristics that create doubt about whether or not they satisfy the definition of an asset. These characteristics include. A) They are not expected to generate net economic benefits. B) They never generate cash inflows. C) They are unlikely ever to be sold. D) They are not expected to generate net economic benefits and they are unlikely ever to be sold. E) None of the given answers.

Under AASB 101 the classification of assets into current and non-current will depend on the entity's: A) average operating cycle. B) current accounting period. C) ordinary course of business D) normal operating cycle. E) 12 month cycle.

AASB 101's definition of current assets and further discussion at paragraph 59 will: A) Simplify the recognition of current assets. B) Require greater professional judgement in order to determine an entity's normal operating cycle. C) Improve analysts' decisions as ratios which use current assets will use the same information. D) Have implications for assessing the liquidity of entities as current assets will now include fewer items. E) None of the given answers.

In the case of classifying a liability as current or non-current, what approach does AASB 101 require if there is no clearly identifiable operating cycle? A) The most common length of operating cycle for other entities in a comparable industry must be used. B) The operating cycle of the event that gave rise to the creation of the liability must be used as the basis for determining the liability's operating cycle. C) The 12 month period from the reporting date must be used. D) The average operating cycle length over all operations of the entity must be used. E) None of the given answers.

The classification of assets into current or non-current in the balance sheet will provide useful information on the short-term solvency of the entity: A) When the entity supplies goods or services within a clearly identifiable normal operating cycle. B) When the operating cycle of the entity is greater than 12 months. C) When the operating cycle of the entity is less than 12 months. D) When the entity is a financial institution. E) None of the given answers.

AASB 101 indicates that when presenting a balance sheet an entity shoulD. A) Present all assets and liabilities as two groups and disclose their specific classifications in notes as per paragraphs 57-67. B) Only present items on the basis of liquidity if that information is reliable and more relevant. If this is the case, assets should be discretely grouped into current and non-current classifications. C) Present items broadly in order of liquidity if that information is reliable and more relevant than following paragraphs 57-67. D) Always classify items as current and non-current. E) None of the given answers.

Where the entity presents current assets separately from non-current assets and current liabilities separately from non-current liabilities what disclosure is the entity required to make under AASB 101? A) The reason for selecting that style of presentation. B) The length of its operating cycle if it has clearly been identified as being greater than 12 months. C) The net amount of working capital. D) A list of the assets and liabilities in the order of their liquidity. E) None of the given answers.

An asset is classified as current when: A) it is expected to be realised or intended for sale or consumption in the entity's normal operating cycle. B) the item is held form trading. C) it is expected to be realised within twelve months after reporting date. D) it is cash or cash equivalent. E) All of the given answers.

If an assets 'value in use' exceeds its market value then: A) An entity should adjust the current carrying amount of the asset to book value. B) It would be expected that the entity would dispose of the asset immediately. C) An impairment loss will need to be recorded. D) It would be expected that the entity would retain the asset. E) No entry is required as cost is the only way to reliably value an asset.

'Recognised' in relation to asset disclosure may be defined as meaning: A) Disclosed in the notes to the accounts but not reported on, or incorporated in amounts reported on the face of the balance sheet. B) Classified according to nature or type within liquidity categories based on the operating cycle of the reporting entity. C) Reported on, or incorporated in amounts reported on, the face of the balance sheet. D) Familiar, of well-known usefulness. E) None of the given answers.

AASB 101 requires, as a minimum, certain line items to be included on the face of the balance sheet. Additional line items may be disclosed based on an assessment of: A) The nature and liquidity of assets. B) The functions of the assets within the entity. C) The amounts, nature and timing of liabilities. D) The nature and liquidity of assets and the amounts, nature and timing of liabilities. E) All of the given answers.

Where the entity presents current assets separately from non-current assets and current liabilities separately from non-current liabilities, AASB 101 requires items to be disclosed on the face of the balance sheet, including: A) Total assets. B) Total liabilities. C) Total parent entity interest. D) Total equity. E) All of the given answers.

According to AASB 136 a non-current asset should bE. A) Revalued downwards where the net amount that is expected to be recovered through the cash inflows and outflows from its continued use and subsequent disposal exceeds its cost. B) Written down to its replacement cost when the recoverable amount is greater than its value in use. C) Written down to its recoverable amount when its carrying amount is greater than its recoverable amount. D) Revalued upwards where its value in use is greater than its net realisable value. E) None of the given answers.

Recoverable amount of an asset is defined in AASB 136 the higher of its fair value less costs to sell and its value in use. In the case where an asset's carrying amount is less than its recoverable amount, which action is consistent with AASB 136? A) Recognise difference as increase is asset revaluation reserve. B) Recognise difference as impairment loss. C) Recognise difference as gain from reinstatement of asset. D) Leave asset at its carrying amount. E) None of the given answers.

It is expected that the service potential of a non-current asset will decline over time. The appropriate accounting treatment is to: A) Amortise the asset over its useful life. B) Disclose the effect in the notes to the balance sheet if it is material in nature. C) Write-off the asset. D) Accrue the difference as a payable in adjusting entries at the end of the period. E) None of the given answers.

Advertising costs are not typically capitalised because. A) It is not considered probable that the advertising will generate future economic benefits. B) The advertising cannot be controlled by the entity. C) The future economic benefits cannot generally be measured reliably. D) The cost of the advertising is typically greater than the recoverable amount. E) None of the given answers.

The effect of capitalising expenditures is to: A) Decrease current period profit, increase current period assets and decrease future period equity. B) Increase current period profit, increase current period assets and decrease future period profit. C) Increase current period profit, decrease current period assets and decrease future period liabilities. D) Increase current period profit, increase current period equity and increase future period profit. E) None of the given answers.

O'Briens Construction Ltd exchanged equipment that had a book value of $40 000 for a truck that had a book value (in the other entity's books) of $38 000. The fair value of the equipment is $45 000 and the fair value of the truck is $48 000. Further cost incurred to prepare the truck for use by O'Briens was $700 for signage. What is the acquisition cost of the truck? A) $48 700 B) $40 000 C) $48 000 D) $45 700 E) None of the given answers.

The cost of an asset will typically include the purchase price and. A) other expenditures on material and services to generate the asset. B) depreciation costs of other assets used to generate the asset. C) salaries and wages of the Chief Executive Officer. D) All of the given answers. E) other expenditures on material and services to generate the asset and depreciation costs of other assets used to generate the asset.

Calling Card Co Ltd has acquired a printing press from Metal Manufacturers Ltd. The deal required Calling Card Co Ltd to exchange the following assets for the printing press: The cost to install the press was $1,000 (not yet paid). What is the entry to record the purchase of the printing press? A) B) C) D) E) None of the given answers.

How should borrowing costs relating to an asset being constructed over a substantial period of time be treated in the accounts? A) Expensed as incurred. B) Capitalised and amortised over the period of the construction of the asset. C) Accrued and amortised over the period of the loan. D) Capitalised as part of the cost of the asset. E) None of the given answers.

Golden Co Ltd has donated a vehicle to Bushman Enterprises as a result of publicity about the plight of Bushman Enterprises after bushfires destroyed most of its fleet of vehicles. The vehicle had cost Golden Co $25 000 and has accumulated depreciation of $10 000. Its market value is $20 000. How should the asset transfer be recorded in both companies' books? A) B) C) D) E) None of the given answers.

The treatment of repairs and additions to property, plant and equipment can be best described as: A) written off as incurred. B) capitalised when it maintains a certain level of service. C) capitalised when the asset's estimated useful life is extended. D) None of the given answers. E) capitalised when it maintains a certain level of service and capitalised when the asset's estimated useful life is extended.

If the entity received a donated asset the entity must: A) recognise an asset. B) recognise a liability. C) recognise an income. D) recognise expense. E) recognises an asset and an income.

The accountant in preparation for the financial statement for the year 2007 realised an error in the determination of recoverable amounts in last year's financial statements. This error had it been detected in 2006 would have required the recognition of impairment losses amounting to $500,000. To comply with AASB 108, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors, the accountant should. A) Make a prospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he has made an error in 2006. B) Make a prospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he is making a change to an estimate in 2006. C) Make a retrospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that that this is a change in accounting estimates. D) Make a retrospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he is changing the accounting policy in 2006. E) Make a retrospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he has made an error in 2006.

AASB 108 (Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors) specifies the accounting treatment for changes in accounting policies, correction of errors and changes in accounting estimates. Which of the following statement(s) in relation to these items is/are true? A) Prior period errors are to be corrected by restating prior period information. B) Voluntary changes in accounting policy is to be accounted for prospectively. C) Changes in accounting estimates are to be accounted for retrospectively, unless it is impracticable to do so. D) A change in the useful life of an asset is considered a change in accounting policy. E) All of the given answers.

The following measurement bases are acceptable for property, plant and equipment: A) Historical Cost B) Revaluation Model C) Fair value Model D) All of the given answers E) Historical Cost and Revaluation Model

Which of the following are considered to be an asset: A) Deposit on a futures contract B) Asset under finance lease C) Deferred acquisition costs D) All of the given answers. E) Deposit on a futures contract and asset under finance lease.

An accountant is not sure on how to recognise an asset that is purchased in excess of fair value. Which of the following action will you recommend? A) Recognise the asset at fair value and the excess as Goodwill. B) Recognise the asset at fair value and the excess as a loss on purchase. C) Recognise the asset at fair value and the excess as receivable from supplier. D) Recognise the asset at cost. E) None of the given answers.

Which of the following items is not considered capitalisable cost of property, plant and equipment? A) Freight costs B) Import duties C) Trade discount D) Installation costs E) None of the given answers

Which of the following items are required to calculate "value in use" of an asset? A) Exit and entry prices B) Purchase price and cost of disposal C) Estimated net future cash flows and appropriate discount rate D) Estimated net future cash flows E) None of the given answers

If an impairment loss recognised in prior periods for a revalued asset no longer exists, AASB 136 "Impairment of Assets" requires a reporting entity to: A) reverse the impairment loss in asset revaluation reserve. B) reverse the impairment loss in profit and loss, only if the asset adopts the revaluation model. C) treat this as a prior period adjustment and recognise the reversal as a gain. D) ignore this information as previously written off assets are precluded from being reinstated. E) None of the given answers

A material prior period error in year ending 2009 was subsequently discovered in 2010. To comply with AASB 108 "Accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and errors" an entity should. A) re-issue the 2009 financial statements with the error corrected. B) make a retrospective adjustment in 2009. C) make a retrospective adjustment in 2010. D) make a prospective adjustment in 2009. E) make a prospective adjustment in 2010.

Applying the asset recognition criteria, which of the following accounting treatments are incorrect? A) Transfer duties were included in the cost of acquisition of the photocopier. B) Monthly servicing of the photocopier was capitalised. C) Monthly servicing of the photocopier was expensed. D) Replacement of a minor component part of the photocopier was expensed. E) None of the given answers.