Quiz 1: Introduction to Paramedicine

What is one of the emerging roles and responsibilities of a paramedic in the 21st century? A) Third-party biller B) Managed health care C) Health promotion D) Internet education

Safety inspections, accident prevention, and medical screening of employees are some of the responsibilities for paramedics working in: A) industrial medicine. B) community clinics. C) correctional institutions. D) sports medicine.

Which of the following best describes the initial education program of the paramedic? A) It addresses everything one needs to know to practice paramedicine. B) It is a rite of passage, but information is inconsistent with how things really should be done. C) It is the base and beginning of one's professional education, not the end. D) Lectures prepare students, but all learning occurs on the job during the internship phase.

Which of the following best describes the paramedic's professional obligation? A) Acceptance and adherence to a code of professional ethics and etiquette B) Placing the system's well-being above that of the patient C) Absolute adherence to medical protocols D) Following long-standing traditions in practice

A major advance in the education of out-of-hospital was the: A) formation of the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians. B) 2009 publication National EMS Services Education Standards. C) passage of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). D) establishment of the National Registry computer-based certification exam.

Which of the following statements about a paramedic's skill competency is TRUE? A) High-frequency, low-criticality skills should be reviewed often. B) Low-frequency, high-criticality skills should be rarely reviewed. C) All skills should be reviewed equally, regardless of criticality. D) Frequent review of infrequently used skills is critical to ensure competency.

The paramedic's right to care for patients, administer medications, and perform other related tasks falls on the license of: A) the EMS system medical director. B) the state secretary of health. C) the receiving hospital personnel. D) the state medical director.

Many professional sports teams have found paramedics to be effective complements to their: A) team physicians. B) physical therapists. C) athletic trainers. D) rehabilitation programs.

Paramedics should always provide care: A) with the intent of transporting all patients. B) only when there is a legitimate patient complaint. C) without regard to a patient's ability to pay. D) with the goal of minimizing on-scene time.

The paramedic's role has expanded to include ________ because of the need to move ill/injured patients from one health care facility to another for specialized care. A) hospital emergency departments B) critical care transport C) corrections medicine D) helicopter EMS

Which of the following best characterizes the professional development of a paramedic? A) It is a career-long pursuit. B) It is focused on public education efforts. C) It is regulated by the system medical director and state agency. D) It is focused on illness and injury prevention.

Which of the following best describes the paramedic's expected level of functioning in the dynamic prehospital setting? A) Acts independently B) Under direct supervision of the medical director C) Under telephone or radio supervision by nursing personnel D) Under direct supervision of fire command

Which of the following aspects of the paramedic's work most appropriately falls into the category of public health? A) Administering care to a patient who has suffered a heart attack B) Providing life-saving measures after a traffic accident C) Educating the public on illness prevention D) Taking steps to prevent a terrorist attack

To legally function as a paramedic, one must: A) have successfully completed an accredited EMT education program. B) have fulfilled the specific requirements of an appropriate credentialing body. C) strive to maintain quality health care, regardless of cost or impact on one's EMS system. D) be able to function independently in a nonstructured, constantly changing environment.

Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined because of: A) research. B) patient complaints. C) legislation. D) lawsuits.

The highest level of prehospital care provider in the United States is a(n): A) emergency medical responder. B) paramedic. C) advanced EMT. D) emergency medical technician.

To practice, paramedics must be approved by a state or provincial agency and the: A) National Association of EMTs. B) National Registry of EMTs. C) EMS system's medical director. D) state medical director.

Which of the following is a desirable paramedic characteristic? A) The ability to give medical advice B) A commanding presence on the scene C) The ability to establish rapport with a wide variety of patients D) The ability to exactly follow protocols on each and every call

Which of the following agencies developed and published the 2009 EMS Instructional Guidelines? A) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians B) The National Association of State EMS Training Coordinators C) The National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians D) The United States Department of Transportation

Where do many of the practices and techniques of tactical EMS come from? A) Police B) Firefighters C) Military D) Critical care medics

Which of these terms is a synonym of "mobile integrated health care?" A) industrial medicine B) illness prevention C) corrections medicine D) community paramedicine

Which of the following certification levels is currently NOT recognized by the National EMS Scope of Practice model? A) Paramedic B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Critical Care Paramedic

The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are called: A) licensure. B) norms. C) protocols. D) ethics.

A physician not affiliated with the responding EMS system who takes part in patient care with system paramedics at an emergency scene is called a(n): A) surrogate medical director. B) volunteer physician. C) intervener physician. D) interloper physician.

The National EMS Education Instructional Guidelines are divided into three domains of learning. The affective domain refers to which of the following? A) Critical thinking and decision making B) Recall of basic facts and information C) Physical skills used for patient care D) Attitudes, values, and emotions

Which of the following National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) elements of EMS systems deals with issues of equal access to acceptable emergency care for all patients? A) Human resources and training B) Public information and education C) Resources management D) Trauma systems

Which of the following is NOT typically a role of the medical director in an EMS system? A) Participating in quality improvement B) Educating and training personnel C) Dispatching EMS personnel D) Participating in personnel and equipment selection

The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system is the: A) quality improvement coordinator. B) medical director. C) system administrator. D) battalion chief.

Medical policies, procedures, and practices that a system medical director has established in advance of a call are called: A) automated medical direction. B) off-line medical oversight. C) remote medical direction. D) on-line medical direction.

In 1980, the revision "KKK-A-1822A" involved: A) primarily addressing electrical systems, signage, and safety. B) guidelines to improve occupant protection in the patient compartment. C) changes based on the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health standards. D) improving ambulance electrical systems by designing a low-amp lighting system to replace antiquated light bars and beacons.

What is the process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has the proper qualifications? A) Registration B) Qualification C) Certification D) Authorization

Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of the: A) EMS system director. B) EMS system medical director. C) EMS program director. D) hospital nursing director.

The process by which a governmental agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection is called: A) reciprocity. B) licensure. C) registration. D) certification.

Which of the following elements of an EMS system is NOT needed to ensure the best possible patient care? A) Resources management B) Medical direction C) Ambulance billing D) Public information

Which of the following best describes the practice of evidence-based medicine? A) Basing all treatments on the patient's signs and symptoms B) Combining clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence C) Using clinical judgment to know when you should deviate from protocols D) Using published reports of research to change practice

Which of the following situations is NOT typically addressed by EMS system protocols? A) Triage B) EMS system financing C) Transfer to appropriate facilities D) Mode of patient transportation

Few areas of the United States provided adequate prehospital care until: A) after World War II. B) after the Gulf War. C) the late 1960s. D) the mid-1950s.

The process by which an agency in one state grants automatic certification or licensing to a paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another state is called: A) professional courtesy. B) immunity. C) recertification. D) reciprocity.

Direct access to medical consultation is a feature of: A) a tiered response system. B) off-line medical oversight. C) the incident command system. D) on-line medical direction.

In which of the following ways can paramedics play a significant part in EMS research? A) Collecting data accurately and completely B) Changing patient care practices based on unique research outcomes C) Volunteering their patients for drug trials D) Experimenting with different ways of managing patients

Components of a paramedic's education include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) refresher courses. B) continuing education. C) initial education. D) disciplinary action.

Guidelines developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for quality improvement in EMS systems include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) regulation and policy. B) financial auditing. C) communications. D) human resources training.

Key events in the historical development of EMS include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A) 1973 EMS Systems Act. B) 1988 Statewide EMS Technical Assistance Program. C) 1975 Cater-Benson Reform Act. D) 1981 COBRA Act.

Which of the following is the publication that first focused attention on the deficiencies in prehospital emergency care? A) KKK-A-1822 B) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem C) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society D) A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems

Which of the following pieces of legislation had a significant NEGATIVE impact on EMS funding? A) The Emergency Medical Services Systems Act B) The National Highway Safety Act C) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)

No EMS system should be without which of the following items? A) An independent communication system B) One reserve ambulance for every active ambulance in the fleet C) A large network of volunteers D) A disaster plan

As a rule, which of the following services should be present in trauma systems within an EMS system? A) Trauma center B) Burn center C) Pediatrics D) Orthopedics

When you complete your paramedic course and pass the National Registry examination, you will: A) be certified to practice as a paramedic in your state. B) be certified to practice as a paramedic in any state. C) be licensed to practice as a paramedic in your state. D) still need to complete your state's certification or licensure process.

The future enhancement of EMS is strongly dependent on: A) the ability to outline the logistics affecting research. B) obtaining approval for patient consent procedures. C) availability of quality research. D) the collection of raw data.

Paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through an evaluation by others of equal rank and skills, known as: A) tenure tracking. B) debriefing. C) peer review. D) performance appraisal.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the KKK specifications? A) To standardize EMS dispatching terminology B) To specify quality improvement procedures C) To state the physical standards required of paramedics D) To standardize the design of ambulances

Entering a person's name and relevant information in a particular record maintained by an organization is best described as: A) registration. B) reciprocity. C) certification. D) licensure.

As defined by the National Highway Transportation Safety Agency (NHTSA), which of the following is NOT a component of an EMS system? A) System of quality improvement B) Public information and education C) Human resources and training D) A public advisory council

Which of the following best describes a comprehensive network of personnel, equipment, and resources established to deliver aid and emergency medical care to the community? A) Trauma system B) EMS system C) Medical direction D) ALS system

Although termed certification by many states, the governmental agency's permission to engage in a profession actually constitutes: A) registration. B) licensure. C) authorization. D) reciprocity.

The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as: A) codes of action and response. B) clinical protocols. C) standard operating procedures. D) standing orders.

One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research is: A) communications. B) transportation. C) human resources. D) funding.

Which of the following choices best explains the difference between an EMT-Intermediate and an EMT-Paramedic? A) Licensure versus certification B) Scope of knowledge C) The legal requirement for medical direction D) Scope of practice

Reasons to be involved with a professional membership organization include all of the following, EXCEPT to: A) stay abreast of changes within the profession. B) share ideas with other providers. C) interact with members from other parts of the country. D) conform to National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) standards.

With regard to medical authorization, which of the following best describes the role of a paramedic in providing prehospital care? A) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed physician medical director. B) He relies on the delegated practice of any licensed health care practitioners, such as physician assistants, nurse practitioners, nurses, and dentists. C) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed nurse. D) He relies on the autonomous medical practitioner.

Which of the following are likely subjects of standing orders or protocols? A) How to handle DNR orders B) Procedures that can be done only with a direct order C) When to use air transport versus ground transport D) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in EMS? A) Recognizing an emergency B) Providing financial support for EMS agencies C) Initiating basic life support procedures D) Accessing the EMS system

The first use of a prehospital system of triage and transport took place: A) in large cities in the 19th-century United States. B) during the U.S. Civil War. C) during the Napoleonic Wars. D) in ancient Mesopotamia.

An example of a quality improvement activity in EMS is: A) peer review of patient care. B) displaying the "Star of Life" symbol. C) disciplinary action for patient care issues. D) using a Type II or III ambulance.

The Institute of Medicine published Emergency Medical Services for Children in: A) 1993. B) 1984. C) 1969. D) 1977.

Sending multiple levels of emergency care personnel to the same incident is called a: A) mass casualty incident. B) helicopter EMS. C) tiered response. D) chain of survival.

An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is called a: A) profession. B) career. C) vocation. D) trade.

Which of these documents recommended that EMS of the future should have the ability to identify and modify illness and injury risks, provide acute illness and injury care and follow-up, and contribute to treatment of chronic conditions and community health monitoring? A) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem B) The EMS Agenda for the Future C) Emergency Medical Services: At the Crossroads D) The Ontario Prehospital Advanced Life Support (OPALS) study

Which of these is NOT an issue facing EMS providers, according to Emergency Medical Services: At the Crossroads? A) Insufficient coordination B) Disparities in response times C) Limited evidence base D) Medical malpractice

Categorization of EMS-receiving hospitals was initially developed to identify which of the following? A) trauma care capability B) stroke care capability C) burn care capability D) chest pain care capability

Which of the following is a knowledge-based failure of patient safety? A) A stressed EMS provider applies the wrong rule, resulting in patient injury. B) A distracted paramedic fails to perform a routine skill correctly. C) A tired EMS provider fails to follow a relevant rule, resulting in patient injury. D) A narcissistic paramedic makes a bad decision based on insufficient information.

Which of the following professional characteristics is required for patients to trust paramedics to be in their homes and have access to their property and personal information? A) Patient advocacy B) Integrity C) Empathy D) Leadership

When en route to a call, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: A) assessing the patient's responsiveness. B) preparing the ambulance to accept the patient. C) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. D) anticipating scene risks and needs based on dispatch information.

Your patient is a 24-year-old man with a severe closed head injury. He is unresponsive, and his vital signs are unstable. Which of the following is the appropriate receiving facility for this patient? A) A Level I trauma center B) A Level III trauma center C) A Level IV trauma center D) A Level II trauma center

Defending patients, protecting them, and, in general, acting in their best interests are all examples of: A) leadership. B) empathy. C) patient advocacy. D) integrity.

During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: A) decontaminating the ambulance. B) correcting the patient care report. C) giving a verbal report to the receiving facility personnel. D) taking care of personal matters before the next call.

The EMT Code of Ethics was established by which of the following groups? A) National Association of EMTs (NAEMT) B) American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP) C) National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) D) National Association of EMS Educators (NAEMSE)

The paramedic is responsible for determining the mechanism of injury or nature of the illness when carrying out which of the primary responsibilities? A) Scene size-up B) Patient management C) Patient assessment D) Response

Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities? A) Patient follow-up B) Response C) Returning to service after a call D) Medical treatment

Consoling and offering emotional support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is an example of the professional attribute of: A) patient advocacy. B) leadership. C) empathy. D) integrity.

Close attention to detail during patient care reflects which of the following professional attributes? A) Self-motivation B) Patient advocacy C) Empathy D) Careful delivery of service

Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities? A) Accident reconstruction B) Crowd control C) Patient disposition D) Public relations

Respecting the opinions offered by peers on a call is an example of which professional characteristic? A) Advocacy B) Diplomacy C) Communication D) Leadership

Which of the following is an example of professional development? A) Participating in mentoring activities B) Reading professional publications C) Attending refresher and continuing education classes D) All of the above

Knowing ________ is NOT part of the paramedic's responsibility prior to an EMS call. A) the nature of illness B) what resources are available C) medical protocols D) how to use communication technology

Which of the following is NOT part of a paramedic's administrative duties? A) Recordkeeping B) Station duties C) Developing interagency relationships D) Promoting community health

Which of the following professional characteristics is displayed in a paramedic's self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision? A) Integrity B) Respect C) Empathy D) Leadership

Which of the following is an example of how paramedics support primary care when carrying out their out-of-hospital functions? A) Transporting all patients to the emergency department B) Determining the appropriateness of treating on the scene and releasing the patient C) Refusing to transport patients who do not have potentially life-threatening conditions D) Transporting to the patient's physician's office, rather than the emergency department

Maintaining paramedic certification through seeking and reporting continuing education is the responsibility of the: A) state EMS office. B) paramedic. C) EMS system. D) training officer.

Which of the following is NOT an example of the paramedic's responsibility for community involvement? A) Teaching the public BLS classes B) Conducting illness and injury risk surveys C) Allowing citizens to vote on EMS protocols D) Helping the public learn how to recognize an emergency

The paramedic who routinely fails to complete duties and paperwork in a timely manner is most likely lacking which of the following professional attributes? A) Self-confidence B) Self-motivation C) Leadership D) Integrity

A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for their community is by using: A) community self-reports. B) injury risk surveys. C) National Science Foundation guidelines. D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines.

Which of the following is NOT considered an allied health profession? A) Nursing B) Paramedicine C) Respiratory therapy D) Physical therapy

The stage of the stress response in which the pituitary gland releases a flood of adrenocorticotropic hormones is: A) exhaustion. B) resistance. C) withdrawal. D) alarm.

Which of the following statements about Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief is most accurate? A) These stages are only experienced by patients actually undergoing the dying process. B) Dying patients experience these stages in their own unique ways. C) Although people have unique experiences along the way, they do experience all five stages. D) Health care providers typically experience one to three of the stages when grieving the death of a patient.

Which of the following best describes those in an ambulance who should use seat belts? A) All persons on board (care providers, patients, and family) B) Only the patient, because the requirements of medical care take priority C) Only those riding in the back D) Only those seated in the front

Of the following, which is NOT generally used on scene to minimize hazards? A) Helmets B) Body armor C) Reflective tape D) Surgical scrubs

One of the principles of proper lifting is to: A) hold your breath while lifting. B) position the load close to your body. C) pull rather than push when possible. D) bend at the waist to use the strong muscles of the back.

Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of grief would be suspected if a cancer patient said to you, "This frustrates me so much. I never saw it coming, and now my family will have to go on without me"? A) Bargaining B) Hopelessness C) Anger D) Denial

Which of the following is an important factor in reducing the risk of infection? A) Stress management B) Adequate rest C) Good nutrition D) All of the above

To minimize the stress of shift work, on their days off paramedics should sleep: A) at the times they sleep on workdays. B) after a heavy meal or strenuous exercise. C) at least 12 hours to catch up on lost sleep. D) at night, regardless of when they sleep on workdays.

Which of the following is NOT one of the core elements of physical fitness? A) Muscular strength B) Speed C) Cardiovascular endurance D) Flexibility

When coping mechanisms can no longer buffer job stressors, the likely result is: A) withdrawal. B) burnout. C) eustress. D) fugue state.

Which of the following causes the greatest hazard for EMS personnel? A) Motor vehicle collisions B) Violence C) Suicide D) Communicable diseases

What is the minimum number of times you should exercise weekly to build cardiovascular endurance? A) 2 B) 5 C) 3 D) 10

Good nutrition habits include: A) drinking 2-3 cups of coffee a day. B) eating 1-2 servings of grains or breads daily. C) enjoying charcoal-cooked foods. D) bringing low-calorie snacks to work.

You are on a scene at which you have requested and received orders for field termination of resuscitative measures. Which of the following terms should you use when informing the family of the patient's status? A) Gone B) Expired C) Dead D) Passed

At which of the following times should you wash your hands? A) Before meals B) When your hands are visibly soiled C) After every patient contact and/or decontamination procedure D) All of the above

The minimum recommended PPE for prehospital providers is all of the following, EXCEPT: A) reusable equipment. B) HEPA respirator. C) protective gloves. D) protective eyewear.

When operating an emergency vehicle, the paramedic should show due regard for the safety of: A) the patient. B) the EMS crew members. C) the general public. D) all of the above.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended vaccination for EMS providers? A) Tuberculosis B) Hepatitis B C) Measles/mumps/rubella D) Influenza

The most important Standard Precaution the EMS provider can employ as an infection control practice is to: A) avoid direct patient contact. B) sterilize all contaminated equipment. C) wash hands frequently. D) receive all recommended vaccinations.

A type of exercise in which muscles are worked through their full ranges of motion to develop muscular strength is called: A) iatrogenic. B) isotonic. C) isolateral. D) isometric.

A patient with suspected or known ________ makes it necessary for the care provider to don a HEPA or an N-95 respirator. A) pneumonia B) HIV C) viral meningitis D) tuberculosis

In addition to gloves, what personal protective equipment should you wear when assisting with childbirth? A) Protective eyewear and gown B) Mask, gown, and protective eyewear C) Mask D) Protective eyewear and N-95 respirator

What can be done to minimize the possibility of developing cancer? A) Eating broccoli and high-fiber foods B) Wearing sunblock C) Risk-assessment screening D) All of the above

Which of the following procedures would you use for dealing with a backboard contaminated with blood? A) Sterilization B) Cleaning C) Disinfection D) Disposal

Your EMS partner has been through some hard times lately. He broke up with his wife a few months ago, and his father died last month. After not smoking for years, he's taken it up again and now chain-smokes. He's sometimes rude to patients, and when you try to talk with him about this, he cuts you off. Your partner is using stress management techniques best described as: A) normal. B) defensive. C) detrimental. D) neutral.

Which of the following increases the risk of motor vehicle collision? A) Poor weather conditions B) Multiple vehicle responses C) The use of an ambulance escort D) All of the above

You are responding to a call for a "person slumped behind the wheel of a car" on a quiet side street at 1 am. How should you approach this car? A) Pull up in front of the car, turn on all lights and the siren, and move quickly toward the vehicle. B) Pull up in front of the car, turn on all lights, and stay in the ambulance to determine scene safety. C) Pull up behind the car, use spotlights to "blind" the occupant, and approach cautiously until you perceive that there is no hostile intent. D) Park behind the car at a safe distance, remain in the ambulance, and wait for law enforcement to arrive and ensure scene safety.

When you are in a stressful situation and find yourself thinking, "I can't do this," one effective strategy is to: A) withdraw. B) deny. C) project. D) reframe.

Which of the following normally occurs as part of the "fight-or-flight" response? A) Pupils dilate. B) Heart rate decreases. C) Blood pressure decreases. D) Digestion speeds up.

One way to prevent a potentially hostile situation is to: A) assert your authority. B) move into bystanders' personal space. C) communicate effectively. D) maintain a closed stance.

Your ambulance arrives at a scene where a car has run into a ditch alongside a two-lane country highway. You should park the ambulance: A) in front of the car on the same side of the street. B) behind the car on the same side of the street. C) behind the car on the opposite side of the street. D) in front of the car on the opposite side of the street.

The stress management technique of controlled breathing works by: A) reducing adrenaline levels. B) increasing blood pressure. C) increasing ACTH levels. D) speeding digestion.

Which of the following can increase the risk of back injury? A) Smoking B) Weak abdominal muscles C) Poor nutrition D) All of the above

You are providing end-of-life care to a patient in the last stages of a terminal illness. She appears to be at peace and speaks animatedly about her upcoming funeral. She is in which stage of loss? A) Acceptance B) Denial C) Bargaining D) Depression

Which of the following is a benefit of good nutritional habits? A) Proper body weight B) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease C) Reduced cancer risk D) All of the above

Eating habits that contribute to good nutrition include which of the following? A) Consuming no more than 10 percent of calories from carbohydrates B) Eating a variety of foods from the major food groups daily C) Eating primarily high-protein foods D) Consuming 8 to 10 glasses of fruit juice per day

Which of the following practices, when done regularly, can help reduce back injuries during lifting? A) Gaining body weight to "anchor" the lift B) Keeping the palms up when possible while lifting the cot C) Using traditional sit-ups to strengthen lower back muscles during exercise routines D) Counterbalance the lift by moving your center of gravity away from the load

Which of the following Standard Precautions should paramedics use with every patient? A) Disposable gloves B) Surgical gown and mask C) Mask and protective eyewear D) HEPA mask

Shift work, down time between calls, and inadequate pay are all examples of ________ stressors. A) emotional B) administrative C) environmental D) physical

Standard Precautions are used on the assumption that: A) the blood and body fluids of all patients are potentially infectious. B) hemorrhage is likely in most patients who call EMS. C) paramedics are threatened mainly by airborne pathogens. D) patients who look healthy are not contagious.

You just sustained an accidental needle stick with a contaminated intravenous needle. You should immediately: A) request a tetanus shot. B) contact your supervisor. C) wash the affected area with soap and water. D) ask the patient about lifestyle risk factors for HIV.

Which of the following is part of good handwashing technique? A) Use the hottest water that can be tolerated. B) Use only antibacterial bar soap, avoiding liquid soaps when possible. C) Thoroughly lather your hands with soap, front and back, for at least 15 seconds. D) Use an ethanol-based, waterless hand sanitizer instead of soap when possible.

Which of the following is NOT a common warning sign of cancer? A) Change in mole size or appearance B) Weight gain C) Unexplained chronic fatigue D) Abnormal lumps

Which of the following is a physiological benefit of achieving and maintaining physical fitness? A) Increased resting blood pressure B) Increased metabolic rate C) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity D) Increased resting heart rate

Which of the following is a bloodborne disease? A) Hepatitis B B) Rubella C) Tuberculosis D) Influenza

The long spine board on which you transported a patient directly contacted the patient's unbroken skin. How would you clean the board? A) Wash it with soap and water. B) Discard it. C) Sterilize it with an EPA-approved solution. D) Disinfect it with a solution of 1 part bleach to 10 parts of water.

Any occurrence in which blood or body fluids contact non-intact skin or mucous membranes is considered a(n): A) contamination. B) exposure. C) incident. D) infection.

As part of a healthy diet to control weight, you should: A) eat low-calorie snacks. B) cut back on fluids. C) eat quickly. D) eat less than the serving size on the food label.

A supervisor senses that an EMS crew that has just conducted a very dramatic, but unsuccessful, rescue of a drowned child may be experiencing very intense emotions about the incident. Which of the following is an appropriate supervisory action? A) Do nothing unless the providers become obviously distressed. B) Refer all crew members to psychiatric help at the end of the shift. C) Minimize any effects by keeping a low-key attitude about the incident. D) Initiate a "resiliency based care" program to care for the mental health of the crew.

When physically preparing yourself to work safely as a paramedic, you should: A) exercise your cardiovascular system at least three times a week. B) read as much as you can about physical fitness. C) perform as many traditional sit-ups as you can to promote abdominal strength. D) do as little as possible to preserve your strength for emergency duty.

When evaluating a patient with tuberculosis, paramedics should protect themselves by: A) placing a HEPA respirator on the patient. B) wearing surgical masks. C) wearing HEPA respirators. D) placing nonrebreather masks on their patients.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of physical fitness? A) Back safety B) Improved self-image C) Enhanced quality of life D) Maintenance of motor skills

Which of the following is NOT a common approach to managing addiction? A) aversion therapy B) behavior modification C) hypnotism D) enhancement therapy

________ describes phenomena in numbers. A) Prospective research B) Qualitative research C) Mixed research D) Quantitative research

Which type of research can help determine whether a procedure, drug, treatment, or similar strategy actually improves patient outcomes? A) Bench B) Outcomes-based C) Mixed D) Qualitative

The person who is overseeing a study and is familiar with requirements for informed consent is the: A) controller. B) institutional review foreman. C) principal investigator. D) abstract editor.

The difference between mean and median is which of the following? A) Mean is calculated by adding values, then dividing the sum by the number of values involved; median is calculated by putting the values into numerical order and finding the middle value. B) Mean is a representation of the standard deviation within a study, and median is the value of the variance. C) Median is calculated by adding values, then dividing the sum by the number of values involved; mean is calculated by putting the values into numerical order and finding the middle value. D) Mean is the value of the variance within a study, and median is a representation of the standard deviation.

A group of subjects who do not have manipulation of the independent variable is called the: A) subject group. B) experimental group. C) treatment group. D) control group.

The acronym ANOVA stands for: A) an over-variable analog. B) a novel analysis. C) analysis of variance. D) abstract null overaction.

A specific question that a research study sets out to answer is called the: A) hypothesis. B) experiment. C) meta-analysis. D) odds ratio.

How well a study supports the conclusions is referred to as: A) variance. B) validity. C) bias. D) ordinal data.

A type of study that does not allow the subjects or the experimenters to know who is in the control group is: A) quasi-experimental. B) cross-sectional. C) double blind D) single blind.

The statistic that reflects only the odds of seeing the results of a particular piece of research if the study hypothesis is TRUE is the: A) nominal data. B) P value. C) chi square test. D) t test.

Which of the following is a common measure of dispersion? A) Standard deviation B) Confidence interval C) Inferential statistics D) Ordinal data

The process by which scientists endeavor to construct an accurate representation of the world that is reliable, consistent, and non-arbitrary is the: A) case series. B) random sampling. C) iterative process. D) scientific method.

The ________ is a brief paragraph that summarizes the need for the study, the research methods used, and the results encountered. A) abstract B) mode C) hypothesis D) parameter

What is the first step of the scientific method? A) Observe and ask questions. B) Construct a hypothesis. C) Conduct research and collect data. D) Test the hypothesis.

Where are the results of a scientific study published, regardless of the outcome of the study? A) In a medical director paper B) In an EMS trade magazine C) In a university-based magazine D) In a peer-reviewed journal

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative research? A) Quantitative research uses a control group; qualitative research does not use a control group. B) Quantitative research is designed to determine the relationship between one thing and another and describe it with numbers; qualitative research primarily relies on collection of nonnumeric data. C) Quantitative research does not use a control group; qualitative research does use a control group. D) Qualitative research is designed to determine the relationship between one thing and another and describe it with numbers; quantitative research primarily relies on collection of nonnumeric data.

When comparing and contrasting between a retrospective and prospective study, which of the following is a TRUE statement? A) Prospective studies are generally less expensive than retrospective methodologies. B) There is more chance for the introduction of bias in the data gathering for prospective studies. C) Prospective studies have greater validity than retrospective studies. D) Retrospective studies use a research form or instrument specifically designed for the study.

In a(n) ________ study, subjects are randomized into either the treatment group or the control group; this type is considered among the most valid of studies. A) experimental B) quasi-experimental C) observational D) retrospective

In many situations it is unethical to withhold treatment from a group simply for the purposes of experimentation. As a result, a(n) ________ study must be done. A) observational B) quasi-experimental C) retrospective D) prospective

The most valid of all the specific study types is: A) cross-sectional study. B) meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials. C) expert opinions, editorials, rational conjecture. D) In vivo research.

This type of study has less validity than an RCT, but it has utility in some circumstances. The problem in this study design is that there is an increased chance that the study groups will be different. A) Cohort study B) Nonrandomized controlled trial C) Cross-sectional study D) Case series

The mean is especially useful when the data are what statisticians call "normally distributed." This means: A) if you graphed the data, it would form a shape similar to a bell curve. B) values are placed into numerical order, and the middle value is determined. C) the data falls within the "fiftieth percentile." D) the distribution of a group is how spread out it is, or how dispersed the data are.

________ are very important in interpreting the value of the research results. A) Measures of central tendency B) Standard deviations C) Qualitative statistics D) Confidence intervals

Which section of a research paper describes exactly how the authors conducted the study, including what population they wished to study, how subjects were selected (and excluded), and what intervention was performed? A) Introduction B) Discussion C) Methods D) Results

The ________ section of a research paper is where the authors interpret their findings and describe their significance. A) summary B) results C) methods D) discussion

The first thing to appear after the title and names of the authors of a research paper is the: A) introduction. B) summary. C) abstract. D) results.

All of the following are questions to ask when reviewing a study, EXCEPT: A) Was the study type appropriate? B) Was the research peer reviewed? C) Were the results reported properly? D) What control group were the researchers studying?

What type of confidence interval would be appropriate for a research study that is potentially going to change EMS practice? A) 80 percent B) 85 percent C) 90 percent D) 95 percent

A ________ is undertaken first to find unforeseen obstacles to data gathering during participation in a research study. A) null hypothesis B) pilot trial C) principal investigation D) data analysis

Telling participants the inclusion and exclusion criteria for enrolling patients in the study, the effect of the study on patient care in general, and the risks and potential benefits to patients in the study helps to: A) gain informed consent. B) get EMS concessions. C) identify the PI. D) determine how to publish.

Which of these is an EMS technique that has been proven through research to be less effective than once thought? A) tiered response B) modified Valsalva maneuver C) endotracheal intubation D) evidence-based practice

Which of these conclusions did the 2001 National EMS Research Agenda NOT reach? A) Develop a cadre of EMS researchers and support them early in their careers. B) Publicize research that supports the consensus of EMS medical directors. C) Establish an alternate funding source for EMS research outside of government. D) View research as necessary for the improvement of patient care.

Which of these is not necessarily a step EMS providers should take when conducting a research study? A) Implement a cohort study model. B) Determine how to obtain informed consent from study subjects. C) Prepare a null hypothesis and research hypothesis. D) Define the population to be studied.

The science and practice of protecting and improving the health of a community through the use of preventive medicine is known as: A) public health. B) epidemiology. C) primary prevention. D) injury risk.

The branch of medicine that deals with the incidence and prevalence of disease in large populations is known as: A) tertiary prevention. B) injury surveillance. C) epidemiology. D) field investigation.

Rehabilition activities that help prevent further injury are called: A) quaternary prevention. B) secondary prevention. C) primary prevention. D) tertiary prevention.

A(n) ________ is the ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of injury data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice. A) injury surveillance program B) primary prevention program C) injury risk program D) epidemiological program

Which one of the following roles does EMS have in public health when providing health care screenings and vaccinations, providing health education, and targeting high-risk populations in an effort to ensure that they are receiving needed medical care? A) Disease surveillance B) Disaster management C) Injury prevention D) Health promotion

Common strategies that include child safety seat classes, bicycle safety training, drunk driving education programs, smoking prevention, and swimming pool safety programs fall under which public health role of EMS? A) Health promotion B) Injury prevention C) Policy development D) Disease surveillance

Which of the following is NOT a category within public health laws? A) Laws that give public health officials the necessary legal tools to perform their jobs B) Laws allowing public health entities to act in the general interest of the public C) Laws that deal with the incidence and prevalence of disease in large populations D) Laws giving public health agencies power to use epidemiological tools to analyze legal issues

How has public health improved both the quality of life and the life span of humankind? A) Through research B) Through epidemiology C) Through surveillance D) All of the above

In order to link its EMS and public health systems, a community must have which of the following in place? A) Strong medical oversight over just the EMS system B) Stakeholders having a role in the planning process C) Disaster plans that are drilled and developed at the state level D) A desire to educate public health providers about field investigation.

A calculation made by subtracting the age at death from 65 is one concept of: A) analytic studies. B) illness prevention. C) epidemiology. D) linkage.

Which of the following is NOT a category of intentional injury? A) Acquaintance rape B) Suicide by hanging C) Household accident D) Elder abuse

A(n) ________ occurs shortly after an injury and is when a patient may be more receptive to learning about how a similar injury can be prevented in the future. A) teachable moment B) injury surveillance C) field investigation D) analytic study

Epidemiologically speaking, an ongoing process that determines the effectiveness, efficiency, and impact of activities related to public health initiatives is called: A) linkage. B) evaluation. C) policy development. D) field evaluation.

A(n) ________ program must also include a component for the timely dissemination of data to those who need to know. A) injury surveillance B) primary prevention C) field investigation D) unintentional injury

Which of the following is an example of how EMS providers can be involved in community injury prevention? A) Transporting an unconscious trauma patient to a Level I trauma center B) Performing CPR on an elderly patient in cardiac arrest C) Participating in a high school drunk driving crash scenario D) Being an advocate to attain the latest technology and equipment

What is required from EMS providers at every level for any prevention program to succeed? A) They must instruct others in the fundamentals of primary prevention. B) They must understand the need for involvement in prevention activities. C) They must participate in all continuing education activities offered in their system. D) They must know all the different types of on-scene survival techniques.

When developing and measuring the success of prevention programs, each EMS agency should contribute data to all of the following agencies, EXCEPT: A) local. B) international. C) federal. D) state.

The ultimate factor in achieving success in an EMS prevention program lies in the hands of: A) frontline personnel. B) EMS managers. C) medical directors. D) community leaders.

The ________ guidelines outline how employers and employees share responsibility for ensuring that Standard Precautions are used to assist in preventing contamination from blood and other bodily fluids. A) HIPAA B) AHA C) AMA D) OSHA

Which of the following is NOT part of the commitment that an EMS provider needs to have to prevent illness and injury? A) Parking the unit in the safest place to load the patient, then directing traffic B) Being familiar with local and state traffic laws and obeying them C) Consistently incorporating exercise and a health-minded attitude into his life D) Knowing his limits and taking time out to relax when necessary

What tends to be the first body part that is injured in a pediatric patient during a motor vehicle collision? A) Chest B) Head C) Abdomen D) Neck

What is the most common mechanism of injury for children younger than 6 years old? A) Firearms B) Abuse and assault C) Motor vehicle collision D) Falls

What is the biggest preventable injury in the geriatric population? A) Falls B) Firearms C) Accidental overdose D) Abuse

Almost one-half of public workplace injuries occur to all of the following EXCEPT: A) the back. B) the eyes. C) the feet. D) the hands.

Which of the following can lead to a medication-related illness/injury? A) Following the medication directions of the pharmacist B) Taking only 7 of the 10 prescribed antibiotic pills C) Seeking prescriptions only from an urgent care facility D) Refilling a medication prescription two days prior to the expiration date

A community issue that may require EMS assistance in developing a prevention program is: A) epidemiological research. B) financial support. C) recognizing scene hazards. D) early discharge of a patient.

A hazardous or potentially hazardous situation that puts people in danger of sustaining injury best defines which of the following? A) Injury risk B) Injury surveillance C) Injury D) Accident

Certain situations, such as epidemics and disasters, call for which of the following actions? A) Public health law research program B) Epidemiological research C) Public health agency police powers D) Illness and prevention laws

Which of the following is one of the components that must be in place for EMS and public health to work together? A) Strong medical oversight B) Legislative doctrines C) Educating the community about EMS D) Passive pursuit of finances

Which of the following is NOT a prevention strategy that EMS personnel should be able to implement? A) Preserving the safety of the response team B) Policing powers C) Document findings D) Knowing the community resources

A paramedic who transports patients without their consent or other legal authority would most likely be subject to charges of: A) false imprisonment. B) abandonment. C) defamation. D) negligence.

A document that is signed by a physician and that outlines the life-sustaining measures that may or may not be taken when a patient's heart and respiratory functions have ceased is a: A) DNR order. B) power of attorney. C) living will. D) statement of last rites.

Injuring a person's name or character through malicious spoken statements is called: A) misfeasance. B) perjury. C) libel. D) slander.

Your patient is a 16-year-old male with a reported history of ingesting 8 to 10 beers over the preceding 2 hours. He fell while jumping on a trampoline, striking his head on the metal framing of the trampoline. There was no reported loss of consciousness, but the patient has a laceration to the occipital area of the head. The patient is alert and oriented to person, time, and place but fails to show appropriate concern for his injury and has slurred speech. The parents are unavailable. Which of the following is the best course of action? A) Treat the patient under the doctrine of implied consent of the parents. B) Treat the patient as an emancipated minor and allow him to decide whether he wants treatment and transport. C) Have the patient arrested for underage drinking, and obtain the consent of law enforcement to treat the patient. D) Use the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur to support your decision to either treat and release or treat and transport.

A civil wrong committed by one individual against another is a: A) breach of duty. B) misdemeanor. C) felony. D) tort.

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for releasing confidential patient information? A) A judge signs a court order requesting the information. B) A newspaper reporter promises not to reveal his source. C) The patient's other medical care providers have a need to know. D) The patient's insurance company needs the information for filing and reimbursement purposes.

EMT-P Smith came to work feeling very tired and decided to nap before doing his equipment and vehicle checklist. After about 45 minutes the tones went off, and EMT-P Smith and his EMT-B partner, Jones, were dispatched for a seizure. The patient was still actively seizing when they arrived at the scene. Smith discovered that the previous shift had used all the Valium and failed to replace it. As a result, Smith could administer no medication to stop the seizure. Ultimately, the patient stopped seizing and suffered no apparent adverse consequences. Which of the following elements to establish negligence is missing in this case? A) Consent B) Breach of duty C) Actual damages D) Duty to act

The granting of permission by a governmental body for a qualified individual to engage in a particular profession or occupation is known as: A) licensure. B) registration. C) reciprocity. D) certification.

Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are three types of: A) aggravated assault. B) breach of duty. C) negligence. D) criminal acts.

________ often occurs in patients who have used CNS depressants and results from the patient being in a physical position that interferes with his airway or with ventilation. A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Excited delirium C) Restraint asphyxia D) Defamation

The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the patient's permission is known as: A) primum non nocere. B) privilege. C) confidentiality. D) privacy.

You are called to a scene for a report of "an unconscious man." When you arrive at the scene, the patient is conscious and alert, sitting on the front stairs with neighbors around him. He says he doesn't know what happened but is "Okay now, just a little woozy." You ask if you can assess him, but he refuses. You make several attempts to get him to change his mind, pointing out possible causes of the problem and possible consequences of refusing. He still says no, and you ask the neighbors if they can help the patient change his mind. Finally, you get the patient to sign a release from liability form and have it witnessed by one of the neighbors. As you leave, you document the call and your efforts to convince the patient to accept assessment/care. What else should you have done with this patient before leaving the scene? A) Consulted with medical direction online B) Advised the patient that he could call EMS again if the problem recurs C) Urged the patient's neighbors to stay with him D) All of the above

The category of law that deals with issues involving conflicts between two or more parties, such as personal injury cases, contract disputes, and matrimonial issues, is ________ law. A) criminal B) civil C) common D) magistrate

When faced with unruly or violent patients who pose threats to themselves, paramedics, or others, the paramedic may control the patients by using: A) reasonable physical force. B) pepper spray. C) handcuffs. D) a Taser.

When a court orders that a prisoner receive treatment the prisoner does not want, the treatment is based on ________ consent. A) involuntary B) expressed C) proximate D) ex parte

Which of the following laws is designed to allow the paramedic who has been potentially exposed to an infectious disease access to the medical records of the patient to whom the paramedic was exposed? A) The Ryan White CARE Act B) EMTALA C) HIPAA D) Good Samaritan laws

There are ethical and societal limits to the interactions between paramedics or other health care personnel and the patients they serve. These are called: A) employment laws. B) professional boundaries. C) scope of practice. D) standard of care.

Which of the following occurrences is LEAST likely to require mandatory legal reporting by the paramedic? A) Public intoxication B) Abuse of the elderly C) Child endangerment D) Spousal battery

A patient has been treated by paramedics for a sprained wrist. En route to the hospital, she suffers a stroke. What is the likely outcome of a negligence lawsuit brought by the patient? A) The suit would succeed because this was a foreseeable event. B) The suit would fail because the plaintiff could not demonstrate that the paramedics' actions were the proximate cause of the stroke. C) The suit would succeed because the paramedics had a duty to act and the patient suffered actual damages. D) The suit would fail because the plaintiff failed to demonstrate malice on the part of the plaintiffs.

When a paramedic treats an unconscious patient, the provision of treatment is based on ________ consent. A) implied B) expressed C) res ipsa loquitur D) primum non nocere

When a patient care report is found to be incomplete or inaccurate, the paramedic should: A) erase or white out the incorrect information and write in the correct facts. B) add a dated and signed written amendment to the original report. C) file a completely new report with the correct information. D) cross out the incorrect information so that it cannot be read and add the correct information to the bottom of the report, dating and signing it.

The unilateral termination of the paramedic-patient relationship by the paramedic without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue is known as: A) misfeasance. B) abandonment. C) assault. D) battery.

The degree of care, skill, and judgment that would be expected of any similarly trained, reasonable paramedic acting under similar circumstances is called the: A) test of prudent actions. B) standard of care. C) duty to act. D) scope of practice.

DNR orders, durable powers of attorney, and living wills are forms of: A) standards of care. B) protocols. C) advance directives. D) medical orders.

Which of the following statements about civil suits regarding torts is generally TRUE? A) The burden of proof rests on the defendant. B) The plaintiff seeks to recover damages from the defendant. C) Guilt must be proven beyond a shadow of a reasonable doubt. D) Intent to harm must be proven.

A physician has ordered you to give a medication that you believe will harm your patient. Which of the following should you do? A) Question the physician but carry out the order if the physician insists. B) Contact a supervisor in the EMS system and request a second opinion. C) Carry out the ordered treatment but note your objection in the patient care report. D) Question the physician, refuse to carry out the order if the physician insists you do so, and document the incident.

You have responded to a physician's office for a terminal cancer patient in cardiac arrest. The physician says, "This is a chemical code only. Just give the meds, but don't intubate or do CPR." Which of the following should you do? A) Tell the physician you are bound to treat the patient according to protocol. If the physician would like you to do something different, she must take complete responsibility for patient care. B) Comply with her orders on the scene to avoid a confrontation, but initiate appropriate care once you are in the back of the ambulance. C) Tell the physician you cannot comply with her orders under any circumstances, and then file a report with the state medical licensing board about her negligence in this case. D) Because this is the patient's personal physician, you must comply with her orders.

Protecting those at risk is an example of a paramedic's ________ duty. A) legal B) medical-legal C) ethical D) moral

Which of the following is best described as the unlawful touching of another individual without the individual's consent? A) Battery B) Malpractice C) Negligence D) Assault

Paramedic Davis and his partner, EMT-I Smothers, are eating lunch in the hospital cafeteria and discussing the details of a call they ran last week on well-known news anchor Adam Best. Unbeknownst to Davis and Smothers, Mr. Best's co-anchor is sitting directly behind them listening to the details. Which of the following best describes the actions of Davis and Smothers? A) Slander B) Breach of confidentiality C) Negligence D) Libel

Which of the following is an example of good documentation? A) Vital information is kept secret between you and your partner. B) You use as many abbreviations as possible. C) It is done prior to patient care. D) It is thorough.

An action or inaction by a paramedic that causes or worsens damages suffered by a patient is called the ________ of the damages. A) precipitating agent B) potential agent C) primary cause D) proximate cause

Most of the laws that OSHA can use to enact regulations and statutes are ________ laws. A) constitutional B) legislative C) administrative D) common

All of the following are matters of civil law, EXCEPT: A) homicide. B) marriage. C) malpractice. D) negligence.

The four elements needed to sustain a charge of negligence against a paramedic are: A) duty to act, actual damages, malicious intent, and significant harm. B) breach of duty, actual damages, malicious intent, and reckless disregard of results. C) duty to act, breach of that duty, actual damages, and proximate cause. D) breach of duty, violation of EMS codes, proximate cause, and failure to document the action.

Legal responsibility for a situation is known as: A) liability. B) primum non nocere. C) negligence. D) res ipsa loquitur.

Which of the following is TRUE in the event that off-duty paramedics provide advanced life-support interventions at an emergency scene? A) They are protected by Good Samaritan laws in all states. B) It is permissible as long as they have valid certification or licensure in that state. C) They will be granted immunity from negligence as long as they follow the standard of care. D) They may be charged with practicing medicine without a license.

"Case" law and "judge-made" law are other names for ________ law. A) constitutional B) common C) legislative D) administrative

A paramedic performs an intervention on a patient that is contrary to current practices. The patient suffers an injury as a result of that intervention. This is an example of: A) malfeasance. B) misfeasance. C) nonfeasance. D) antifeasance.

A written statement of a patient's preference for future medical care is a(n): A) power of attorney. B) patient narrative. C) deposition. D) advance directive.

OSHA's development of requirements to be followed at hazardous materials emergencies is an example of ________ law. A) legislative B) constitutional C) common D) administrative

In a lawsuit in which a paramedic has been charged with negligence, the paramedic is called the: A) suspect B) plaintiff C) defendant D) magistrate

The duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform while carrying out their jobs are called the: A) National Standard Curriculum. B) standing orders. C) scope of practice. D) treatment guidelines.

Which of the following is NOT one of the common elements of Good Samaritan laws offering protection to people who assist at scenes of medical emergencies? A) The person acted in good faith. B) The person was not grossly negligent. C) The person accepted no payment for his services. D) The person attempted to contact qualified emergency personnel.

The type of consent that must be obtained from a conscious, competent adult patient before a paramedic can begin treatment is called ________ consent. A) implied B) voluntary C) ex officio D) informed

Your patient is a competent adult who has given permission for treatment and transport. You have loaded the patient into the ambulance, but just before you are ready to leave the scene, she changes her mind and says she does not want to go to the hospital. Which of the following statements about this situation is TRUE? A) You must obtain an emergency detention order to continue treatment. B) She cannot withdraw consent after having given it. C) She can now be treated using implied consent. D) She can withdraw consent.

A patient is involved in a car crash. When the paramedics arrive, he complains of neck pain but refuses to let the paramedics immobilize his spine. The paramedics explain the risks of refusing treatment and have the patient sign a release-from-liability form. The patient suffers minor neurological damage and later sues, charging negligence on the part of the paramedics. Which of the following best explains why the patient is NOT likely to be awarded damages? A) There was contributory negligence on the part of the patient. B) The paramedics did not have a duty to act. C) There was no violation of the standard of care. D) A monetary award cannot be assigned to the damages.

A paramedic may treat an unconscious diabetic patient by relying on: A) res ipsa loquitur. B) implied consent. C) primum non nocere. D) informed consent.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a civil suit? A) Imprisonment B) Incident C) Investigation D) Discovery

Injuring a person's name or character through false written statements is known as: A) misfeasance. B) libel. C) slander. D) perjury.

You are treating a patient who you think needs an IV of lactated Ringer's. The patient, however, says he is frightened of needles and refuses to give his consent. If you display the IV catheter and bring it toward the patient, you may be charged with: A) negligence. B) assault. C) battery. D) libel.

Generally, a patient under age 18 can be considered an emancipated minor in all of the following situations EXCEPT when the patient is a: A) 16-year-old female who is the parent of a 1-year-old child. B) 16-year-old living in foster care. C) 17-year-old who is in the military. D) 16-year-old female who is pregnant.

Which of the following is NOT an important action to take when preserving physical evidence at a crime scene? A) Once a crime scene has been deemed safe, initiate patient contact and medical care. B) Do not move or touch anything at a crime scene unless it is necessary to do so for patient care. C) Above all, protect yourself and the safety of other EMS personnel. D) Report suspected child or elder abuse to the proper authorities.

State laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases, and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to protect the patient's: A) right to self-determination. B) First Amendment rights. C) confidentiality. D) autonomy.

The four fundamental principles or values used to resolve problems in bioethics today include all of the following EXCEPT: A) beneficence. B) maleficence. C) autonomy. D) egalitarianism.

The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of: A) beneficence. B) democracy. C) sovereignty. D) justice.

Your paramedic partner is telling you about a situation in which he resuscitated a patient with a DNR, even though the DNR was present and available to him at the time he began resuscitation. He tells you he is justified because the patient survived for a year after the incident and suffered no ill effects from the cardiac arrest or the resuscitation efforts. Which of the following best describes the ethical approach used by your partner? A) Deontologicalism B) Consequentialism C) Ethical relativism D) Self-determination

The idea that each person must decide how to behave and that whatever decision that person makes is acceptable is known as: A) consequentialism. B) the deontological method. C) ethical relativism. D) moral positivism.

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the: A) impartiality test. B) interpersonal justifiability test. C) universalizability test. D) rationalization test.

The most common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are those involving: A) administering expensive medications. B) deciding whether to terminate resuscitative efforts. C) triage in mass-casualty incidents. D) transporting patients to high-quality versus low-quality hospitals.

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can vindicate your actions to others is known as the: A) interpersonal justifiability test. B) rationalization test. C) impartiality test. D) universalizability test.

If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to: A) cease resuscitation efforts. B) check the patient's breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts. C) continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction. D) continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department.

Enforced racial segregation in the United States before the 1960s can best be described as: A) illegal, but ethical. B) legal, but unethical. C) illegal and unethical. D) legal and ethical.

Rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are called: A) regulations. B) ethics. C) morals. D) statutes.

You are on the scene where an 80-year-old woman is unresponsive and has shallow, snoring respirations. The patient's husband wants you to do nothing for the patient, but her daughter is crying and pleading with you to do something to help her mother. The patient lacks a DNR. The husband insists that his wife would not want to be "kept alive by machines." Which of the following is the most ethical course of action? A) Follow the husband's wishes, because he has the legal authority to make the decision while the daughter does not. B) Explain to the husband that you do not yet know what is wrong with his wife, that it may be something readily treatable, and that without a written order from her physician you cannot withhold treatment. C) Consider how you would feel if it was your spouse or parent, and ask yourself what you would want done. D) Find out more about the patient's medical history in an attempt to determine if resuscitative measures would be futile.

Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are called: A) morals. B) culture. C) common laws. D) ethics.

When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patient's place is known as the: A) universalizability test. B) rationalization test. C) impartiality test. D) interpersonal justifiability test.

Which of the following questions should guide the paramedic in ethical decision making? A) "Have I consulted with medical direction?" B) "What legal liability will I face as a result of this action?" C) "What is in the patient's best interest?" D) "What do the system protocols say?"

Your patient is a 49-year-old woman with terminal cancer. She has a DNR order, but her family has called 911 because the patient is having difficulty breathing and seems to be very uncomfortable. Making the patient as comfortable as possible demonstrates the ethical principle of: A) beneficence. B) autonomy. C) justice. D) malfeasance.

When students are working with patients under a preceptor in an EMS system, at what point should the preceptor inform the patients that their care, or part of it, is being performed by a student? A) This information should not be revealed to the patient. B) The patient should be informed after the procedure but only if there are no complications from the procedure. C) The patient should be informed if he asks what the caregiver's qualifications are. D) The patient should be informed before procedures are performed, and the student should be allowed to proceed only with the patient's consent.

The right of competent people to determine what happens to their bodies is one example of the principle of: A) autonomy. B) libertarianism. C) democracy. D) agency.

You are driving home late one night from a state-to-state interhospital transport. You are still in the other state driving home at 0200 hours when you come upon a single-vehicle MVC on a deserted stretch of the highway. You stop your ambulance, and you and your partner assess the scene and find out there is only one occupant of the vehicle and that the victim is unresponsive. If you initiate care and transport the patient to a hospital without summoning local EMS or fire, your actions could be considered: A) illegal. B) unethical. C) inappropriate. D) unnecessary.

Failure to stop and render assistance could be perceived by the patient's family or other EMS providers as being: A) illegal. B) unethical. C) appropriate. D) unnecessary.

Which of the following is not typically addressed in a code of ethics? A) nondiscrimination B) fitness requirements C) social responsibility D) responsible publication

A(n) ________ system uses a computer to route transmissions to the first available frequency. A) repeater B) digital C) encrypted D) trunked

Which of the following is most effective in helping the dispatcher get information from distressed callers? A) Having supervisors get on the line with the callers B) A standard set of medically approved questions C) Empathetic pauses to allow the callers to collect their thoughts D) Transferring callers to a consulting-nurse advice line

The type of communication system that works like a telephone is: A) ultrasimplex. B) multiplex. C) simplex. D) duplex.

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for effective radio use? A) Press the transmit button for one second before speaking. B) Use codes that are part of the international EMS system. C) Speak in a normal pitch, keeping your voice free of emotion. D) Do not waste airtime with unnecessary information.

Paramedics and other EMTs becoming affordable in rural communities and also helping to fill gaps in primary health care services is a concept of: A) community paramedicine. B) creation of ad hoc databases. C) medical quality video. D) public safety answering points.

The acronym PSAP stands for: A) paramedic system answering point. B) prehospital safety and prevention. C) public safety answering point. D) public safety agency paramedics.

Cellular telephone systems use ________ to transmit communications. A) shortwave technology B) underground cables C) satellite technology D) regional radio base stations

The dispatcher's directions to the caller for appropriate emergency measures are known as: A) enhanced 911 service. B) priority dispatching. C) prearrival instructions. D) call coordination.

Without formal transfer of care to the receiving hospital, paramedics could be charged with: A) malpractice. B) abuse. C) abandonment. D) neglect.

Because only the necessary resources are sent on each call, priority dispatching has which of the following benefits? A) Minimizes responder responsibilities B) Saves time and money C) Reduces patient anxiety D) Keeps dispatchers alert

Which of the following is the key link in the chain that results in the best possible patient outcome? A) Conceptualization B) Communication C) Coordination D) Confrontation

In terms of written communication, a neat and complete PCR is a good indicator of which of the following paramedic traits? A) Professionalism B) Compassion C) Promotion suitability D) Education level

How can AACN improve outcomes with seriously injured patients? A) Assisting with field triage destination and transportation decisions B) Increasing response times by prehospital care providers C) Predicting the unlikelihood of serious injury among vehicle occupants D) Increasing the time it takes for patients to receive definitive trauma care

Multiplex systems transmit: A) voice simultaneously in two ways. B) on the same frequency as they receive. C) using digital encryption technology. D) voice and data simultaneously.

The prehospital care report is all of the following EXCEPT a(n): A) legal record of the incident. B) public record. C) indicator of professionalism. D) part of the patient's permanent medical record.

What is the last step in the sequence of communications during an EMS response? A) Calling 911 B) Transferring communications C) Emergency medical dispatch D) Citizen detection and access

The emergency medical dispatcher has just finished interrogating a caller. The next step would be for the dispatcher to: A) follow established guidelines to determine the appropriate level of response. B) call the patient's insurance company for preapproval. C) transfer care of the patient to the receiving facility with a hand-off report. D) send a first responder engine company and paramedics.

Systems that transmit and receive on the same frequency are ________ systems. A) multiplex B) duplex C) simplex D) trunked

All of the following are other technology applications with broadband implications that the national EMS communications initiatives have suggested, EXCEPT: A) patient multi-vital-signs monitoring. B) infrared crowd disease detection. C) wire-based speech-to-monitor transcription. D) creation of ad hoc multicomponent patient databases.

Which of the following radio waves can penetrate through concrete and steel? A) UHF B) VHF C) ICT D) GIS

You are giving a report to the base physician. After stating the patient's age, sex, and weight, you should next: A) give the patient's chief complaint. B) give the hospital the ETA. C) relay treatments already rendered D) request specific orders.

Without proper terminology and verbal communications skills, the receiver will be unable to ________ the message. A) decode B) resend C) encode D) receive

Immediate repetition of medical orders received during radio communications is known as the: A) verification protocol. B) echo procedure. C) standard format. D) response algorithm.

Regulation of communications at the federal level includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) licensing technical personnel. B) establishing technical standards. C) establishing terminology. D) allocating radio frequencies.

Information on the prehospital care reports may be used by which of the following in certain circumstances? A) Hospital staff B) Insurance claims departments C) Attorneys D) All of the above

The main duties of the dispatcher, after sending the responders and providing prearrival instructions, include: A) transferring communications. B) discussing medical direction. C) directing the crew to an appropriate receiving facility. D) supporting and coordinating.

What is semantics? A) A standard format for delivering information B) The meaning of words C) Effective communications D) Process of exchanging information between individuals

The practice of notifying a receiving hospital of an ambulance's impending arrival began in the: A) 1960s. B) 1970s. C) 1980s. D) 1990s.

Which of the following best explains the reason for the need to communicate effectively with other responders? A) To coordinate and implement the treatment plan B) To summon EMS through a PSAP C) To make sure you can recover your equipment afterward D) To exchange career information

Medical audits, research, and policy changes can improve patient care through information collected from: A) prehospital care reports. B) crew activity logs. C) vehicle maintenance logs. D) disciplinary action records.