Quiz 1: Introduction to Paramedicine
Nursing
Q 1Q 1
What is one of the emerging roles and responsibilities of a paramedic in the 21st century?
A) Third-party biller
B) Managed health care
C) Health promotion
D) Internet education
Free
Multiple Choice
C
Q 2Q 2
Safety inspections, accident prevention, and medical screening of employees are some of the responsibilities for paramedics working in:
A) industrial medicine.
B) community clinics.
C) correctional institutions.
D) sports medicine.
Free
Multiple Choice
A
Q 3Q 3
Which of the following best describes the initial education program of the paramedic?
A) It addresses everything one needs to know to practice paramedicine.
B) It is a rite of passage, but information is inconsistent with how things really should be done.
C) It is the base and beginning of one's professional education, not the end.
D) Lectures prepare students, but all learning occurs on the job during the internship phase.
Free
Multiple Choice
C
Q 4Q 4
Which of the following best describes the paramedic's professional obligation?
A) Acceptance and adherence to a code of professional ethics and etiquette
B) Placing the system's well-being above that of the patient
C) Absolute adherence to medical protocols
D) Following long-standing traditions in practice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 5Q 5
A major advance in the education of out-of-hospital was the:
A) formation of the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians.
B) 2009 publication National EMS Services Education Standards.
C) passage of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
D) establishment of the National Registry computer-based certification exam.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 6Q 6
Which of the following statements about a paramedic's skill competency is TRUE?
A) High-frequency, low-criticality skills should be reviewed often.
B) Low-frequency, high-criticality skills should be rarely reviewed.
C) All skills should be reviewed equally, regardless of criticality.
D) Frequent review of infrequently used skills is critical to ensure competency.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 7Q 7
The paramedic's right to care for patients, administer medications, and perform other related tasks falls on the license of:
A) the EMS system medical director.
B) the state secretary of health.
C) the receiving hospital personnel.
D) the state medical director.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 8Q 8
Many professional sports teams have found paramedics to be effective complements to their:
A) team physicians.
B) physical therapists.
C) athletic trainers.
D) rehabilitation programs.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 9Q 9
Paramedics should always provide care:
A) with the intent of transporting all patients.
B) only when there is a legitimate patient complaint.
C) without regard to a patient's ability to pay.
D) with the goal of minimizing on-scene time.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 10Q 10
The paramedic's role has expanded to include ________ because of the need to move ill/injured patients from one health care facility to another for specialized care.
A) hospital emergency departments
B) critical care transport
C) corrections medicine
D) helicopter EMS
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 11Q 11
Which of the following best characterizes the professional development of a paramedic?
A) It is a career-long pursuit.
B) It is focused on public education efforts.
C) It is regulated by the system medical director and state agency.
D) It is focused on illness and injury prevention.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 12Q 12
Which of the following best describes the paramedic's expected level of functioning in the dynamic prehospital setting?
A) Acts independently
B) Under direct supervision of the medical director
C) Under telephone or radio supervision by nursing personnel
D) Under direct supervision of fire command
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 13Q 13
Which of the following aspects of the paramedic's work most appropriately falls into the category of public health?
A) Administering care to a patient who has suffered a heart attack
B) Providing life-saving measures after a traffic accident
C) Educating the public on illness prevention
D) Taking steps to prevent a terrorist attack
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 14Q 14
To legally function as a paramedic, one must:
A) have successfully completed an accredited EMT education program.
B) have fulfilled the specific requirements of an appropriate credentialing body.
C) strive to maintain quality health care, regardless of cost or impact on one's EMS system.
D) be able to function independently in a nonstructured, constantly changing environment.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 15Q 15
Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined because of:
A) research.
B) patient complaints.
C) legislation.
D) lawsuits.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 16Q 16
The highest level of prehospital care provider in the United States is a(n):
A) emergency medical responder.
B) paramedic.
C) advanced EMT.
D) emergency medical technician.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 17Q 17
To practice, paramedics must be approved by a state or provincial agency and the:
A) National Association of EMTs.
B) National Registry of EMTs.
C) EMS system's medical director.
D) state medical director.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 18Q 18
Which of the following is a desirable paramedic characteristic?
A) The ability to give medical advice
B) A commanding presence on the scene
C) The ability to establish rapport with a wide variety of patients
D) The ability to exactly follow protocols on each and every call
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 19Q 19
Which of the following agencies developed and published the 2009 EMS Instructional Guidelines?
A) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians
B) The National Association of State EMS Training Coordinators
C) The National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians
D) The United States Department of Transportation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 20Q 20
Where do many of the practices and techniques of tactical EMS come from?
A) Police
B) Firefighters
C) Military
D) Critical care medics
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 21Q 21
Which of these terms is a synonym of "mobile integrated health care?"
A) industrial medicine
B) illness prevention
C) corrections medicine
D) community paramedicine
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 22Q 22
Which of the following certification levels is currently NOT recognized by the National EMS Scope of Practice model?
A) Paramedic
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Emergency Medical Technician
D) Critical Care Paramedic
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 23Q 23
The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are called:
A) licensure.
B) norms.
C) protocols.
D) ethics.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 24Q 24
A physician not affiliated with the responding EMS system who takes part in patient care with system paramedics at an emergency scene is called a(n):
A) surrogate medical director.
B) volunteer physician.
C) intervener physician.
D) interloper physician.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 25Q 25
The National EMS Education Instructional Guidelines are divided into three domains of learning. The affective domain refers to which of the following?
A) Critical thinking and decision making
B) Recall of basic facts and information
C) Physical skills used for patient care
D) Attitudes, values, and emotions
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 26Q 26
Which of the following National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) elements of EMS systems deals with issues of equal access to acceptable emergency care for all patients?
A) Human resources and training
B) Public information and education
C) Resources management
D) Trauma systems
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 27Q 27
Which of the following is NOT typically a role of the medical director in an EMS system?
A) Participating in quality improvement
B) Educating and training personnel
C) Dispatching EMS personnel
D) Participating in personnel and equipment selection
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 28Q 28
The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system is the:
A) quality improvement coordinator.
B) medical director.
C) system administrator.
D) battalion chief.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 29Q 29
Medical policies, procedures, and practices that a system medical director has established in advance of a call are called:
A) automated medical direction.
B) off-line medical oversight.
C) remote medical direction.
D) on-line medical direction.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 30Q 30
In 1980, the revision "KKK-A-1822A" involved:
A) primarily addressing electrical systems, signage, and safety.
B) guidelines to improve occupant protection in the patient compartment.
C) changes based on the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health standards.
D) improving ambulance electrical systems by designing a low-amp lighting system to replace antiquated light bars and beacons.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 31Q 31
What is the process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has the proper qualifications?
A) Registration
B) Qualification
C) Certification
D) Authorization
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 32Q 32
Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of the:
A) EMS system director.
B) EMS system medical director.
C) EMS program director.
D) hospital nursing director.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 33Q 33
The process by which a governmental agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection is called:
A) reciprocity.
B) licensure.
C) registration.
D) certification.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 34Q 34
Which of the following elements of an EMS system is NOT needed to ensure the best possible patient care?
A) Resources management
B) Medical direction
C) Ambulance billing
D) Public information
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 35Q 35
Which of the following best describes the practice of evidence-based medicine?
A) Basing all treatments on the patient's signs and symptoms
B) Combining clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence
C) Using clinical judgment to know when you should deviate from protocols
D) Using published reports of research to change practice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 36Q 36
Which of the following situations is NOT typically addressed by EMS system protocols?
A) Triage
B) EMS system financing
C) Transfer to appropriate facilities
D) Mode of patient transportation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 37Q 37
Few areas of the United States provided adequate prehospital care until:
A) after World War II.
B) after the Gulf War.
C) the late 1960s.
D) the mid-1950s.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 38Q 38
The process by which an agency in one state grants automatic certification or licensing to a paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another state is called:
A) professional courtesy.
B) immunity.
C) recertification.
D) reciprocity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 39Q 39
Direct access to medical consultation is a feature of:
A) a tiered response system.
B) off-line medical oversight.
C) the incident command system.
D) on-line medical direction.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 40Q 40
In which of the following ways can paramedics play a significant part in EMS research?
A) Collecting data accurately and completely
B) Changing patient care practices based on unique research outcomes
C) Volunteering their patients for drug trials
D) Experimenting with different ways of managing patients
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 41Q 41
Components of a paramedic's education include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) refresher courses.
B) continuing education.
C) initial education.
D) disciplinary action.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 42Q 42
Guidelines developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for quality improvement in EMS systems include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) regulation and policy.
B) financial auditing.
C) communications.
D) human resources training.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 43Q 43
Key events in the historical development of EMS include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
A) 1973 EMS Systems Act.
B) 1988 Statewide EMS Technical Assistance Program.
C) 1975 Cater-Benson Reform Act.
D) 1981 COBRA Act.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 44Q 44
Which of the following is the publication that first focused attention on the deficiencies in prehospital emergency care?
A) KKK-A-1822
B) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem
C) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society
D) A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 45Q 45
Which of the following pieces of legislation had a significant NEGATIVE impact on EMS funding?
A) The Emergency Medical Services Systems Act
B) The National Highway Safety Act
C) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 46Q 46
No EMS system should be without which of the following items?
A) An independent communication system
B) One reserve ambulance for every active ambulance in the fleet
C) A large network of volunteers
D) A disaster plan
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 47Q 47
As a rule, which of the following services should be present in trauma systems within an EMS system?
A) Trauma center
B) Burn center
C) Pediatrics
D) Orthopedics
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 48Q 48
When you complete your paramedic course and pass the National Registry examination, you will:
A) be certified to practice as a paramedic in your state.
B) be certified to practice as a paramedic in any state.
C) be licensed to practice as a paramedic in your state.
D) still need to complete your state's certification or licensure process.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 49Q 49
The future enhancement of EMS is strongly dependent on:
A) the ability to outline the logistics affecting research.
B) obtaining approval for patient consent procedures.
C) availability of quality research.
D) the collection of raw data.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 50Q 50
Paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through an evaluation by others of equal rank and skills, known as:
A) tenure tracking.
B) debriefing.
C) peer review.
D) performance appraisal.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 51Q 51
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the KKK specifications?
A) To standardize EMS dispatching terminology
B) To specify quality improvement procedures
C) To state the physical standards required of paramedics
D) To standardize the design of ambulances
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 52Q 52
Entering a person's name and relevant information in a particular record maintained by an organization is best described as:
A) registration.
B) reciprocity.
C) certification.
D) licensure.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 53Q 53
As defined by the National Highway Transportation Safety Agency (NHTSA), which of the following is NOT a component of an EMS system?
A) System of quality improvement
B) Public information and education
C) Human resources and training
D) A public advisory council
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 54Q 54
Which of the following best describes a comprehensive network of personnel, equipment, and resources established to deliver aid and emergency medical care to the community?
A) Trauma system
B) EMS system
C) Medical direction
D) ALS system
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 55Q 55
Although termed certification by many states, the governmental agency's permission to engage in a profession actually constitutes:
A) registration.
B) licensure.
C) authorization.
D) reciprocity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 56Q 56
The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as:
A) codes of action and response.
B) clinical protocols.
C) standard operating procedures.
D) standing orders.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 57Q 57
One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research is:
A) communications.
B) transportation.
C) human resources.
D) funding.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 58Q 58
Which of the following choices best explains the difference between an EMT-Intermediate and an EMT-Paramedic?
A) Licensure versus certification
B) Scope of knowledge
C) The legal requirement for medical direction
D) Scope of practice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 59Q 59
Reasons to be involved with a professional membership organization include all of the following, EXCEPT to:
A) stay abreast of changes within the profession.
B) share ideas with other providers.
C) interact with members from other parts of the country.
D) conform to National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) standards.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 60Q 60
With regard to medical authorization, which of the following best describes the role of a paramedic in providing prehospital care?
A) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed physician medical director.
B) He relies on the delegated practice of any licensed health care practitioners, such as physician assistants, nurse practitioners, nurses, and dentists.
C) He relies on the delegated practice of a licensed nurse.
D) He relies on the autonomous medical practitioner.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 61Q 61
Which of the following are likely subjects of standing orders or protocols?
A) How to handle DNR orders
B) Procedures that can be done only with a direct order
C) When to use air transport versus ground transport
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 62Q 62
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in EMS?
A) Recognizing an emergency
B) Providing financial support for EMS agencies
C) Initiating basic life support procedures
D) Accessing the EMS system
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 63Q 63
The first use of a prehospital system of triage and transport took place:
A) in large cities in the 19th-century United States.
B) during the U.S. Civil War.
C) during the Napoleonic Wars.
D) in ancient Mesopotamia.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 64Q 64
An example of a quality improvement activity in EMS is:
A) peer review of patient care.
B) displaying the "Star of Life" symbol.
C) disciplinary action for patient care issues.
D) using a Type II or III ambulance.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 65Q 65
The Institute of Medicine published Emergency Medical Services for Children in:
A) 1993.
B) 1984.
C) 1969.
D) 1977.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 66Q 66
Sending multiple levels of emergency care personnel to the same incident is called a:
A) mass casualty incident.
B) helicopter EMS.
C) tiered response.
D) chain of survival.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 67Q 67
An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is called a:
A) profession.
B) career.
C) vocation.
D) trade.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 68Q 68
Which of these documents recommended that EMS of the future should have the ability to identify and modify illness and injury risks, provide acute illness and injury care and follow-up, and contribute to treatment of chronic conditions and community health monitoring?
A) Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem
B) The EMS Agenda for the Future
C) Emergency Medical Services: At the Crossroads
D) The Ontario Prehospital Advanced Life Support (OPALS) study
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 69Q 69
Which of these is NOT an issue facing EMS providers, according to Emergency Medical Services: At the Crossroads?
A) Insufficient coordination
B) Disparities in response times
C) Limited evidence base
D) Medical malpractice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 70Q 70
Categorization of EMS-receiving hospitals was initially developed to identify which of the following?
A) trauma care capability
B) stroke care capability
C) burn care capability
D) chest pain care capability
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 71Q 71
Which of the following is a knowledge-based failure of patient safety?
A) A stressed EMS provider applies the wrong rule, resulting in patient injury.
B) A distracted paramedic fails to perform a routine skill correctly.
C) A tired EMS provider fails to follow a relevant rule, resulting in patient injury.
D) A narcissistic paramedic makes a bad decision based on insufficient information.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 72Q 72
Which of the following professional characteristics is required for patients to trust paramedics to be in their homes and have access to their property and personal information?
A) Patient advocacy
B) Integrity
C) Empathy
D) Leadership
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 73Q 73
When en route to a call, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is:
A) assessing the patient's responsiveness.
B) preparing the ambulance to accept the patient.
C) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.
D) anticipating scene risks and needs based on dispatch information.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 74Q 74
Your patient is a 24-year-old man with a severe closed head injury. He is unresponsive, and his vital signs are unstable. Which of the following is the appropriate receiving facility for this patient?
A) A Level I trauma center
B) A Level III trauma center
C) A Level IV trauma center
D) A Level II trauma center
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 75Q 75
Defending patients, protecting them, and, in general, acting in their best interests are all examples of:
A) leadership.
B) empathy.
C) patient advocacy.
D) integrity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 76Q 76
During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is:
A) decontaminating the ambulance.
B) correcting the patient care report.
C) giving a verbal report to the receiving facility personnel.
D) taking care of personal matters before the next call.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 77Q 77
The EMT Code of Ethics was established by which of the following groups?
A) National Association of EMTs (NAEMT)
B) American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP)
C) National Registry of EMTs (NREMT)
D) National Association of EMS Educators (NAEMSE)
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 78Q 78
The paramedic is responsible for determining the mechanism of injury or nature of the illness when carrying out which of the primary responsibilities?
A) Scene size-up
B) Patient management
C) Patient assessment
D) Response
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 79Q 79
Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?
A) Patient follow-up
B) Response
C) Returning to service after a call
D) Medical treatment
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 80Q 80
Consoling and offering emotional support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is an example of the professional attribute of:
A) patient advocacy.
B) leadership.
C) empathy.
D) integrity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 81Q 81
Close attention to detail during patient care reflects which of the following professional attributes?
A) Self-motivation
B) Patient advocacy
C) Empathy
D) Careful delivery of service
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 82Q 82
Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?
A) Accident reconstruction
B) Crowd control
C) Patient disposition
D) Public relations
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 83Q 83
Respecting the opinions offered by peers on a call is an example of which professional characteristic?
A) Advocacy
B) Diplomacy
C) Communication
D) Leadership
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 84Q 84
Which of the following is an example of professional development?
A) Participating in mentoring activities
B) Reading professional publications
C) Attending refresher and continuing education classes
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 85Q 85
Knowing ________ is NOT part of the paramedic's responsibility prior to an EMS call.
A) the nature of illness
B) what resources are available
C) medical protocols
D) how to use communication technology
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 86Q 86
Which of the following is NOT part of a paramedic's administrative duties?
A) Recordkeeping
B) Station duties
C) Developing interagency relationships
D) Promoting community health
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 87Q 87
Which of the following professional characteristics is displayed in a paramedic's self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision?
A) Integrity
B) Respect
C) Empathy
D) Leadership
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 88Q 88
Which of the following is an example of how paramedics support primary care when carrying out their out-of-hospital functions?
A) Transporting all patients to the emergency department
B) Determining the appropriateness of treating on the scene and releasing the patient
C) Refusing to transport patients who do not have potentially life-threatening conditions
D) Transporting to the patient's physician's office, rather than the emergency department
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 89Q 89
Maintaining paramedic certification through seeking and reporting continuing education is the responsibility of the:
A) state EMS office.
B) paramedic.
C) EMS system.
D) training officer.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 90Q 90
Which of the following is NOT an example of the paramedic's responsibility for community involvement?
A) Teaching the public BLS classes
B) Conducting illness and injury risk surveys
C) Allowing citizens to vote on EMS protocols
D) Helping the public learn how to recognize an emergency
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 91Q 91
The paramedic who routinely fails to complete duties and paperwork in a timely manner is most likely lacking which of the following professional attributes?
A) Self-confidence
B) Self-motivation
C) Leadership
D) Integrity
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 92Q 92
A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for their community is by using:
A) community self-reports.
B) injury risk surveys.
C) National Science Foundation guidelines.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 93Q 93
Which of the following is NOT considered an allied health profession?
A) Nursing
B) Paramedicine
C) Respiratory therapy
D) Physical therapy
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 94Q 94
The stage of the stress response in which the pituitary gland releases a flood of adrenocorticotropic hormones is:
A) exhaustion.
B) resistance.
C) withdrawal.
D) alarm.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 95Q 95
Which of the following statements about Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief is most accurate?
A) These stages are only experienced by patients actually undergoing the dying process.
B) Dying patients experience these stages in their own unique ways.
C) Although people have unique experiences along the way, they do experience all five stages.
D) Health care providers typically experience one to three of the stages when grieving the death of a patient.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 96Q 96
Which of the following best describes those in an ambulance who should use seat belts?
A) All persons on board (care providers, patients, and family)
B) Only the patient, because the requirements of medical care take priority
C) Only those riding in the back
D) Only those seated in the front
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 97Q 97
Of the following, which is NOT generally used on scene to minimize hazards?
A) Helmets
B) Body armor
C) Reflective tape
D) Surgical scrubs
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 98Q 98
One of the principles of proper lifting is to:
A) hold your breath while lifting.
B) position the load close to your body.
C) pull rather than push when possible.
D) bend at the waist to use the strong muscles of the back.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 99Q 99
Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of grief would be suspected if a cancer patient said to you, "This frustrates me so much. I never saw it coming, and now my family will have to go on without me"?
A) Bargaining
B) Hopelessness
C) Anger
D) Denial
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 100Q 100
Which of the following is an important factor in reducing the risk of infection?
A) Stress management
B) Adequate rest
C) Good nutrition
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 101Q 101
To minimize the stress of shift work, on their days off paramedics should sleep:
A) at the times they sleep on workdays.
B) after a heavy meal or strenuous exercise.
C) at least 12 hours to catch up on lost sleep.
D) at night, regardless of when they sleep on workdays.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 102Q 102
Which of the following is NOT one of the core elements of physical fitness?
A) Muscular strength
B) Speed
C) Cardiovascular endurance
D) Flexibility
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 103Q 103
When coping mechanisms can no longer buffer job stressors, the likely result is:
A) withdrawal.
B) burnout.
C) eustress.
D) fugue state.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 104Q 104
Which of the following causes the greatest hazard for EMS personnel?
A) Motor vehicle collisions
B) Violence
C) Suicide
D) Communicable diseases
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 105Q 105
What is the minimum number of times you should exercise weekly to build cardiovascular endurance?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 3
D) 10
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 106Q 106
Good nutrition habits include:
A) drinking 2-3 cups of coffee a day.
B) eating 1-2 servings of grains or breads daily.
C) enjoying charcoal-cooked foods.
D) bringing low-calorie snacks to work.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 107Q 107
You are on a scene at which you have requested and received orders for field termination of resuscitative measures. Which of the following terms should you use when informing the family of the patient's status?
A) Gone
B) Expired
C) Dead
D) Passed
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 108Q 108
At which of the following times should you wash your hands?
A) Before meals
B) When your hands are visibly soiled
C) After every patient contact and/or decontamination procedure
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 109Q 109
The minimum recommended PPE for prehospital providers is all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) reusable equipment.
B) HEPA respirator.
C) protective gloves.
D) protective eyewear.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 110Q 110
When operating an emergency vehicle, the paramedic should show due regard for the safety of:
A) the patient.
B) the EMS crew members.
C) the general public.
D) all of the above.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 111Q 111
Which of the following is NOT a recommended vaccination for EMS providers?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Hepatitis B
C) Measles/mumps/rubella
D) Influenza
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 112Q 112
The most important Standard Precaution the EMS provider can employ as an infection control practice is to:
A) avoid direct patient contact.
B) sterilize all contaminated equipment.
C) wash hands frequently.
D) receive all recommended vaccinations.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 113Q 113
A type of exercise in which muscles are worked through their full ranges of motion to develop muscular strength is called:
A) iatrogenic.
B) isotonic.
C) isolateral.
D) isometric.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 114Q 114
A patient with suspected or known ________ makes it necessary for the care provider to don a HEPA or an N-95 respirator.
A) pneumonia
B) HIV
C) viral meningitis
D) tuberculosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 115Q 115
In addition to gloves, what personal protective equipment should you wear when assisting with childbirth?
A) Protective eyewear and gown
B) Mask, gown, and protective eyewear
C) Mask
D) Protective eyewear and N-95 respirator
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 116Q 116
What can be done to minimize the possibility of developing cancer?
A) Eating broccoli and high-fiber foods
B) Wearing sunblock
C) Risk-assessment screening
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 117Q 117
Which of the following procedures would you use for dealing with a backboard contaminated with blood?
A) Sterilization
B) Cleaning
C) Disinfection
D) Disposal
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 118Q 118
Your EMS partner has been through some hard times lately. He broke up with his wife a few months ago, and his father died last month. After not smoking for years, he's taken it up again and now chain-smokes. He's sometimes rude to patients, and when you try to talk with him about this, he cuts you off. Your partner is using stress management techniques best described as:
A) normal.
B) defensive.
C) detrimental.
D) neutral.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 119Q 119
Which of the following increases the risk of motor vehicle collision?
A) Poor weather conditions
B) Multiple vehicle responses
C) The use of an ambulance escort
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 120Q 120
You are responding to a call for a "person slumped behind the wheel of a car" on a quiet side street at 1 am. How should you approach this car?
A) Pull up in front of the car, turn on all lights and the siren, and move quickly toward the vehicle.
B) Pull up in front of the car, turn on all lights, and stay in the ambulance to determine scene safety.
C) Pull up behind the car, use spotlights to "blind" the occupant, and approach cautiously until you perceive that there is no hostile intent.
D) Park behind the car at a safe distance, remain in the ambulance, and wait for law enforcement to arrive and ensure scene safety.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 121Q 121
When you are in a stressful situation and find yourself thinking, "I can't do this," one effective strategy is to:
A) withdraw.
B) deny.
C) project.
D) reframe.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 122Q 122
Which of the following normally occurs as part of the "fight-or-flight" response?
A) Pupils dilate.
B) Heart rate decreases.
C) Blood pressure decreases.
D) Digestion speeds up.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 123Q 123
One way to prevent a potentially hostile situation is to:
A) assert your authority.
B) move into bystanders' personal space.
C) communicate effectively.
D) maintain a closed stance.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 124Q 124
Your ambulance arrives at a scene where a car has run into a ditch alongside a two-lane country highway. You should park the ambulance:
A) in front of the car on the same side of the street.
B) behind the car on the same side of the street.
C) behind the car on the opposite side of the street.
D) in front of the car on the opposite side of the street.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 125Q 125
The stress management technique of controlled breathing works by:
A) reducing adrenaline levels.
B) increasing blood pressure.
C) increasing ACTH levels.
D) speeding digestion.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 126Q 126
Which of the following can increase the risk of back injury?
A) Smoking
B) Weak abdominal muscles
C) Poor nutrition
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 127Q 127
You are providing end-of-life care to a patient in the last stages of a terminal illness. She appears to be at peace and speaks animatedly about her upcoming funeral. She is in which stage of loss?
A) Acceptance
B) Denial
C) Bargaining
D) Depression
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 128Q 128
Which of the following is a benefit of good nutritional habits?
A) Proper body weight
B) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease
C) Reduced cancer risk
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 129Q 129
Eating habits that contribute to good nutrition include which of the following?
A) Consuming no more than 10 percent of calories from carbohydrates
B) Eating a variety of foods from the major food groups daily
C) Eating primarily high-protein foods
D) Consuming 8 to 10 glasses of fruit juice per day
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 130Q 130
Which of the following practices, when done regularly, can help reduce back injuries during lifting?
A) Gaining body weight to "anchor" the lift
B) Keeping the palms up when possible while lifting the cot
C) Using traditional sit-ups to strengthen lower back muscles during exercise routines
D) Counterbalance the lift by moving your center of gravity away from the load
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 131Q 131
Which of the following Standard Precautions should paramedics use with every patient?
A) Disposable gloves
B) Surgical gown and mask
C) Mask and protective eyewear
D) HEPA mask
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 132Q 132
Shift work, down time between calls, and inadequate pay are all examples of ________ stressors.
A) emotional
B) administrative
C) environmental
D) physical
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 133Q 133
Standard Precautions are used on the assumption that:
A) the blood and body fluids of all patients are potentially infectious.
B) hemorrhage is likely in most patients who call EMS.
C) paramedics are threatened mainly by airborne pathogens.
D) patients who look healthy are not contagious.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 134Q 134
You just sustained an accidental needle stick with a contaminated intravenous needle. You should immediately:
A) request a tetanus shot.
B) contact your supervisor.
C) wash the affected area with soap and water.
D) ask the patient about lifestyle risk factors for HIV.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 135Q 135
Which of the following is part of good handwashing technique?
A) Use the hottest water that can be tolerated.
B) Use only antibacterial bar soap, avoiding liquid soaps when possible.
C) Thoroughly lather your hands with soap, front and back, for at least 15 seconds.
D) Use an ethanol-based, waterless hand sanitizer instead of soap when possible.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 136Q 136
Which of the following is NOT a common warning sign of cancer?
A) Change in mole size or appearance
B) Weight gain
C) Unexplained chronic fatigue
D) Abnormal lumps
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 137Q 137
Which of the following is a physiological benefit of achieving and maintaining physical fitness?
A) Increased resting blood pressure
B) Increased metabolic rate
C) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
D) Increased resting heart rate
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 138Q 138
Which of the following is a bloodborne disease?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Rubella
C) Tuberculosis
D) Influenza
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 139Q 139
The long spine board on which you transported a patient directly contacted the patient's unbroken skin. How would you clean the board?
A) Wash it with soap and water.
B) Discard it.
C) Sterilize it with an EPA-approved solution.
D) Disinfect it with a solution of 1 part bleach to 10 parts of water.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 140Q 140
Any occurrence in which blood or body fluids contact non-intact skin or mucous membranes is considered a(n):
A) contamination.
B) exposure.
C) incident.
D) infection.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 141Q 141
As part of a healthy diet to control weight, you should:
A) eat low-calorie snacks.
B) cut back on fluids.
C) eat quickly.
D) eat less than the serving size on the food label.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 142Q 142
A supervisor senses that an EMS crew that has just conducted a very dramatic, but unsuccessful, rescue of a drowned child may be experiencing very intense emotions about the incident. Which of the following is an appropriate supervisory action?
A) Do nothing unless the providers become obviously distressed.
B) Refer all crew members to psychiatric help at the end of the shift.
C) Minimize any effects by keeping a low-key attitude about the incident.
D) Initiate a "resiliency based care" program to care for the mental health of the crew.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 143Q 143
When physically preparing yourself to work safely as a paramedic, you should:
A) exercise your cardiovascular system at least three times a week.
B) read as much as you can about physical fitness.
C) perform as many traditional sit-ups as you can to promote abdominal strength.
D) do as little as possible to preserve your strength for emergency duty.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 144Q 144
When evaluating a patient with tuberculosis, paramedics should protect themselves by:
A) placing a HEPA respirator on the patient.
B) wearing surgical masks.
C) wearing HEPA respirators.
D) placing nonrebreather masks on their patients.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 145Q 145
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of physical fitness?
A) Back safety
B) Improved self-image
C) Enhanced quality of life
D) Maintenance of motor skills
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 146Q 146
Which of the following is NOT a common approach to managing addiction?
A) aversion therapy
B) behavior modification
C) hypnotism
D) enhancement therapy
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 147Q 147
________ describes phenomena in numbers.
A) Prospective research
B) Qualitative research
C) Mixed research
D) Quantitative research
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 148Q 148
Which type of research can help determine whether a procedure, drug, treatment, or similar strategy actually improves patient outcomes?
A) Bench
B) Outcomes-based
C) Mixed
D) Qualitative
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 149Q 149
The person who is overseeing a study and is familiar with requirements for informed consent is the:
A) controller.
B) institutional review foreman.
C) principal investigator.
D) abstract editor.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 150Q 150
The difference between mean and median is which of the following?
A) Mean is calculated by adding values, then dividing the sum by the number of values involved; median is calculated by putting the values into numerical order and finding the middle value.
B) Mean is a representation of the standard deviation within a study, and median is the value of the variance.
C) Median is calculated by adding values, then dividing the sum by the number of values involved; mean is calculated by putting the values into numerical order and finding the middle value.
D) Mean is the value of the variance within a study, and median is a representation of the standard deviation.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 151Q 151
A group of subjects who do not have manipulation of the independent variable is called the:
A) subject group.
B) experimental group.
C) treatment group.
D) control group.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 152Q 152
The acronym ANOVA stands for:
A) an over-variable analog.
B) a novel analysis.
C) analysis of variance.
D) abstract null overaction.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 153Q 153
A specific question that a research study sets out to answer is called the:
A) hypothesis.
B) experiment.
C) meta-analysis.
D) odds ratio.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 154Q 154
How well a study supports the conclusions is referred to as:
A) variance.
B) validity.
C) bias.
D) ordinal data.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 155Q 155
A type of study that does not allow the subjects or the experimenters to know who is in the control group is:
A) quasi-experimental.
B) cross-sectional.
C) double blind
D) single blind.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 156Q 156
The statistic that reflects only the odds of seeing the results of a particular piece of research if the study hypothesis is TRUE is the:
A) nominal data.
B) P value.
C) chi square test.
D) t test.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 157Q 157
Which of the following is a common measure of dispersion?
A) Standard deviation
B) Confidence interval
C) Inferential statistics
D) Ordinal data
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 158Q 158
The process by which scientists endeavor to construct an accurate representation of the world that is reliable, consistent, and non-arbitrary is the:
A) case series.
B) random sampling.
C) iterative process.
D) scientific method.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 159Q 159
The ________ is a brief paragraph that summarizes the need for the study, the research methods used, and the results encountered.
A) abstract
B) mode
C) hypothesis
D) parameter
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 160Q 160
What is the first step of the scientific method?
A) Observe and ask questions.
B) Construct a hypothesis.
C) Conduct research and collect data.
D) Test the hypothesis.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 161Q 161
Where are the results of a scientific study published, regardless of the outcome of the study?
A) In a medical director paper
B) In an EMS trade magazine
C) In a university-based magazine
D) In a peer-reviewed journal
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 162Q 162
What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative research?
A) Quantitative research uses a control group; qualitative research does not use a control group.
B) Quantitative research is designed to determine the relationship between one thing and another and describe it with numbers; qualitative research primarily relies on collection of nonnumeric data.
C) Quantitative research does not use a control group; qualitative research does use a control group.
D) Qualitative research is designed to determine the relationship between one thing and another and describe it with numbers; quantitative research primarily relies on collection of nonnumeric data.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 163Q 163
When comparing and contrasting between a retrospective and prospective study, which of the following is a TRUE statement?
A) Prospective studies are generally less expensive than retrospective methodologies.
B) There is more chance for the introduction of bias in the data gathering for prospective studies.
C) Prospective studies have greater validity than retrospective studies.
D) Retrospective studies use a research form or instrument specifically designed for the study.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 164Q 164
In a(n) ________ study, subjects are randomized into either the treatment group or the control group; this type is considered among the most valid of studies.
A) experimental
B) quasi-experimental
C) observational
D) retrospective
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 165Q 165
In many situations it is unethical to withhold treatment from a group simply for the purposes of experimentation. As a result, a(n) ________ study must be done.
A) observational
B) quasi-experimental
C) retrospective
D) prospective
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 166Q 166
The most valid of all the specific study types is:
A) cross-sectional study.
B) meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.
C) expert opinions, editorials, rational conjecture.
D) In vivo research.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 167Q 167
This type of study has less validity than an RCT, but it has utility in some circumstances. The problem in this study design is that there is an increased chance that the study groups will be different.
A) Cohort study
B) Nonrandomized controlled trial
C) Cross-sectional study
D) Case series
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 168Q 168
The mean is especially useful when the data are what statisticians call "normally distributed." This means:
A) if you graphed the data, it would form a shape similar to a bell curve.
B) values are placed into numerical order, and the middle value is determined.
C) the data falls within the "fiftieth percentile."
D) the distribution of a group is how spread out it is, or how dispersed the data are.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 169Q 169
________ are very important in interpreting the value of the research results.
A) Measures of central tendency
B) Standard deviations
C) Qualitative statistics
D) Confidence intervals
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 170Q 170
Which section of a research paper describes exactly how the authors conducted the study, including what population they wished to study, how subjects were selected (and excluded), and what intervention was performed?
A) Introduction
B) Discussion
C) Methods
D) Results
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 171Q 171
The ________ section of a research paper is where the authors interpret their findings and describe their significance.
A) summary
B) results
C) methods
D) discussion
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 172Q 172
The first thing to appear after the title and names of the authors of a research paper is the:
A) introduction.
B) summary.
C) abstract.
D) results.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 173Q 173
All of the following are questions to ask when reviewing a study, EXCEPT:
A) Was the study type appropriate?
B) Was the research peer reviewed?
C) Were the results reported properly?
D) What control group were the researchers studying?
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 174Q 174
What type of confidence interval would be appropriate for a research study that is potentially going to change EMS practice?
A) 80 percent
B) 85 percent
C) 90 percent
D) 95 percent
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 175Q 175
A ________ is undertaken first to find unforeseen obstacles to data gathering during participation in a research study.
A) null hypothesis
B) pilot trial
C) principal investigation
D) data analysis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 176Q 176
Telling participants the inclusion and exclusion criteria for enrolling patients in the study, the effect of the study on patient care in general, and the risks and potential benefits to patients in the study helps to:
A) gain informed consent.
B) get EMS concessions.
C) identify the PI.
D) determine how to publish.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 177Q 177
Which of these is an EMS technique that has been proven through research to be less effective than once thought?
A) tiered response
B) modified Valsalva maneuver
C) endotracheal intubation
D) evidence-based practice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 178Q 178
Which of these conclusions did the 2001 National EMS Research Agenda NOT reach?
A) Develop a cadre of EMS researchers and support them early in their careers.
B) Publicize research that supports the consensus of EMS medical directors.
C) Establish an alternate funding source for EMS research outside of government.
D) View research as necessary for the improvement of patient care.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 179Q 179
Which of these is not necessarily a step EMS providers should take when conducting a research study?
A) Implement a cohort study model.
B) Determine how to obtain informed consent from study subjects.
C) Prepare a null hypothesis and research hypothesis.
D) Define the population to be studied.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 180Q 180
The science and practice of protecting and improving the health of a community through the use of preventive medicine is known as:
A) public health.
B) epidemiology.
C) primary prevention.
D) injury risk.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 181Q 181
The branch of medicine that deals with the incidence and prevalence of disease in large populations is known as:
A) tertiary prevention.
B) injury surveillance.
C) epidemiology.
D) field investigation.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 182Q 182
Rehabilition activities that help prevent further injury are called:
A) quaternary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) primary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 183Q 183
A(n) ________ is the ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of injury data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice.
A) injury surveillance program
B) primary prevention program
C) injury risk program
D) epidemiological program
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 184Q 184
Which one of the following roles does EMS have in public health when providing health care screenings and vaccinations, providing health education, and targeting high-risk populations in an effort to ensure that they are receiving needed medical care?
A) Disease surveillance
B) Disaster management
C) Injury prevention
D) Health promotion
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 185Q 185
Common strategies that include child safety seat classes, bicycle safety training, drunk driving education programs, smoking prevention, and swimming pool safety programs fall under which public health role of EMS?
A) Health promotion
B) Injury prevention
C) Policy development
D) Disease surveillance
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 186Q 186
Which of the following is NOT a category within public health laws?
A) Laws that give public health officials the necessary legal tools to perform their jobs
B) Laws allowing public health entities to act in the general interest of the public
C) Laws that deal with the incidence and prevalence of disease in large populations
D) Laws giving public health agencies power to use epidemiological tools to analyze legal issues
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 187Q 187
How has public health improved both the quality of life and the life span of humankind?
A) Through research
B) Through epidemiology
C) Through surveillance
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 188Q 188
In order to link its EMS and public health systems, a community must have which of the following in place?
A) Strong medical oversight over just the EMS system
B) Stakeholders having a role in the planning process
C) Disaster plans that are drilled and developed at the state level
D) A desire to educate public health providers about field investigation.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 189Q 189
A calculation made by subtracting the age at death from 65 is one concept of:
A) analytic studies.
B) illness prevention.
C) epidemiology.
D) linkage.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 190Q 190
Which of the following is NOT a category of intentional injury?
A) Acquaintance rape
B) Suicide by hanging
C) Household accident
D) Elder abuse
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 191Q 191
A(n) ________ occurs shortly after an injury and is when a patient may be more receptive to learning about how a similar injury can be prevented in the future.
A) teachable moment
B) injury surveillance
C) field investigation
D) analytic study
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 192Q 192
Epidemiologically speaking, an ongoing process that determines the effectiveness, efficiency, and impact of activities related to public health initiatives is called:
A) linkage.
B) evaluation.
C) policy development.
D) field evaluation.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 193Q 193
A(n) ________ program must also include a component for the timely dissemination of data to those who need to know.
A) injury surveillance
B) primary prevention
C) field investigation
D) unintentional injury
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 194Q 194
Which of the following is an example of how EMS providers can be involved in community injury prevention?
A) Transporting an unconscious trauma patient to a Level I trauma center
B) Performing CPR on an elderly patient in cardiac arrest
C) Participating in a high school drunk driving crash scenario
D) Being an advocate to attain the latest technology and equipment
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 195Q 195
What is required from EMS providers at every level for any prevention program to succeed?
A) They must instruct others in the fundamentals of primary prevention.
B) They must understand the need for involvement in prevention activities.
C) They must participate in all continuing education activities offered in their system.
D) They must know all the different types of on-scene survival techniques.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 196Q 196
When developing and measuring the success of prevention programs, each EMS agency should contribute data to all of the following agencies, EXCEPT:
A) local.
B) international.
C) federal.
D) state.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 197Q 197
The ultimate factor in achieving success in an EMS prevention program lies in the hands of:
A) frontline personnel.
B) EMS managers.
C) medical directors.
D) community leaders.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 198Q 198
The ________ guidelines outline how employers and employees share responsibility for ensuring that Standard Precautions are used to assist in preventing contamination from blood and other bodily fluids.
A) HIPAA
B) AHA
C) AMA
D) OSHA
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 199Q 199
Which of the following is NOT part of the commitment that an EMS provider needs to have to prevent illness and injury?
A) Parking the unit in the safest place to load the patient, then directing traffic
B) Being familiar with local and state traffic laws and obeying them
C) Consistently incorporating exercise and a health-minded attitude into his life
D) Knowing his limits and taking time out to relax when necessary
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 200Q 200
What tends to be the first body part that is injured in a pediatric patient during a motor vehicle collision?
A) Chest
B) Head
C) Abdomen
D) Neck
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 201Q 201
What is the most common mechanism of injury for children younger than 6 years old?
A) Firearms
B) Abuse and assault
C) Motor vehicle collision
D) Falls
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 202Q 202
What is the biggest preventable injury in the geriatric population?
A) Falls
B) Firearms
C) Accidental overdose
D) Abuse
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 203Q 203
Almost one-half of public workplace injuries occur to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the back.
B) the eyes.
C) the feet.
D) the hands.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 204Q 204
Which of the following can lead to a medication-related illness/injury?
A) Following the medication directions of the pharmacist
B) Taking only 7 of the 10 prescribed antibiotic pills
C) Seeking prescriptions only from an urgent care facility
D) Refilling a medication prescription two days prior to the expiration date
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 205Q 205
A community issue that may require EMS assistance in developing a prevention program is:
A) epidemiological research.
B) financial support.
C) recognizing scene hazards.
D) early discharge of a patient.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 206Q 206
A hazardous or potentially hazardous situation that puts people in danger of sustaining injury best defines which of the following?
A) Injury risk
B) Injury surveillance
C) Injury
D) Accident
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 207Q 207
Certain situations, such as epidemics and disasters, call for which of the following actions?
A) Public health law research program
B) Epidemiological research
C) Public health agency police powers
D) Illness and prevention laws
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 208Q 208
Which of the following is one of the components that must be in place for EMS and public health to work together?
A) Strong medical oversight
B) Legislative doctrines
C) Educating the community about EMS
D) Passive pursuit of finances
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 209Q 209
Which of the following is NOT a prevention strategy that EMS personnel should be able to implement?
A) Preserving the safety of the response team
B) Policing powers
C) Document findings
D) Knowing the community resources
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 210Q 210
A paramedic who transports patients without their consent or other legal authority would most likely be subject to charges of:
A) false imprisonment.
B) abandonment.
C) defamation.
D) negligence.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 211Q 211
A document that is signed by a physician and that outlines the life-sustaining measures that may or may not be taken when a patient's heart and respiratory functions have ceased is a:
A) DNR order.
B) power of attorney.
C) living will.
D) statement of last rites.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 212Q 212
Injuring a person's name or character through malicious spoken statements is called:
A) misfeasance.
B) perjury.
C) libel.
D) slander.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 213Q 213
Your patient is a 16-year-old male with a reported history of ingesting 8 to 10 beers over the preceding 2 hours. He fell while jumping on a trampoline, striking his head on the metal framing of the trampoline. There was no reported loss of consciousness, but the patient has a laceration to the occipital area of the head. The patient is alert and oriented to person, time, and place but fails to show appropriate concern for his injury and has slurred speech. The parents are unavailable. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A) Treat the patient under the doctrine of implied consent of the parents.
B) Treat the patient as an emancipated minor and allow him to decide whether he wants treatment and transport.
C) Have the patient arrested for underage drinking, and obtain the consent of law enforcement to treat the patient.
D) Use the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur to support your decision to either treat and release or treat and transport.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 214Q 214
A civil wrong committed by one individual against another is a:
A) breach of duty.
B) misdemeanor.
C) felony.
D) tort.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 215Q 215
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for releasing confidential patient information?
A) A judge signs a court order requesting the information.
B) A newspaper reporter promises not to reveal his source.
C) The patient's other medical care providers have a need to know.
D) The patient's insurance company needs the information for filing and reimbursement purposes.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 216Q 216
EMT-P Smith came to work feeling very tired and decided to nap before doing his equipment and vehicle checklist. After about 45 minutes the tones went off, and EMT-P Smith and his EMT-B partner, Jones, were dispatched for a seizure. The patient was still actively seizing when they arrived at the scene. Smith discovered that the previous shift had used all the Valium and failed to replace it. As a result, Smith could administer no medication to stop the seizure. Ultimately, the patient stopped seizing and suffered no apparent adverse consequences. Which of the following elements to establish negligence is missing in this case?
A) Consent
B) Breach of duty
C) Actual damages
D) Duty to act
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 217Q 217
The granting of permission by a governmental body for a qualified individual to engage in a particular profession or occupation is known as:
A) licensure.
B) registration.
C) reciprocity.
D) certification.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 218Q 218
Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are three types of:
A) aggravated assault.
B) breach of duty.
C) negligence.
D) criminal acts.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 219Q 219
________ often occurs in patients who have used CNS depressants and results from the patient being in a physical position that interferes with his airway or with ventilation.
A) Res ipsa loquitur
B) Excited delirium
C) Restraint asphyxia
D) Defamation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 220Q 220
The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the patient's permission is known as:
A) primum non nocere.
B) privilege.
C) confidentiality.
D) privacy.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 221Q 221
You are called to a scene for a report of "an unconscious man." When you arrive at the scene, the patient is conscious and alert, sitting on the front stairs with neighbors around him. He says he doesn't know what happened but is "Okay now, just a little woozy." You ask if you can assess him, but he refuses. You make several attempts to get him to change his mind, pointing out possible causes of the problem and possible consequences of refusing. He still says no, and you ask the neighbors if they can help the patient change his mind. Finally, you get the patient to sign a release from liability form and have it witnessed by one of the neighbors. As you leave, you document the call and your efforts to convince the patient to accept assessment/care. What else should you have done with this patient before leaving the scene?
A) Consulted with medical direction online
B) Advised the patient that he could call EMS again if the problem recurs
C) Urged the patient's neighbors to stay with him
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 222Q 222
The category of law that deals with issues involving conflicts between two or more parties, such as personal injury cases, contract disputes, and matrimonial issues, is ________ law.
A) criminal
B) civil
C) common
D) magistrate
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 223Q 223
When faced with unruly or violent patients who pose threats to themselves, paramedics, or others, the paramedic may control the patients by using:
A) reasonable physical force.
B) pepper spray.
C) handcuffs.
D) a Taser.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 224Q 224
When a court orders that a prisoner receive treatment the prisoner does not want, the treatment is based on ________ consent.
A) involuntary
B) expressed
C) proximate
D) ex parte
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 225Q 225
Which of the following laws is designed to allow the paramedic who has been potentially exposed to an infectious disease access to the medical records of the patient to whom the paramedic was exposed?
A) The Ryan White CARE Act
B) EMTALA
C) HIPAA
D) Good Samaritan laws
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 226Q 226
There are ethical and societal limits to the interactions between paramedics or other health care personnel and the patients they serve. These are called:
A) employment laws.
B) professional boundaries.
C) scope of practice.
D) standard of care.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 227Q 227
Which of the following occurrences is LEAST likely to require mandatory legal reporting by the paramedic?
A) Public intoxication
B) Abuse of the elderly
C) Child endangerment
D) Spousal battery
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 228Q 228
A patient has been treated by paramedics for a sprained wrist. En route to the hospital, she suffers a stroke. What is the likely outcome of a negligence lawsuit brought by the patient?
A) The suit would succeed because this was a foreseeable event.
B) The suit would fail because the plaintiff could not demonstrate that the paramedics' actions were the proximate cause of the stroke.
C) The suit would succeed because the paramedics had a duty to act and the patient suffered actual damages.
D) The suit would fail because the plaintiff failed to demonstrate malice on the part of the plaintiffs.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 229Q 229
When a paramedic treats an unconscious patient, the provision of treatment is based on ________ consent.
A) implied
B) expressed
C) res ipsa loquitur
D) primum non nocere
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 230Q 230
When a patient care report is found to be incomplete or inaccurate, the paramedic should:
A) erase or white out the incorrect information and write in the correct facts.
B) add a dated and signed written amendment to the original report.
C) file a completely new report with the correct information.
D) cross out the incorrect information so that it cannot be read and add the correct information to the bottom of the report, dating and signing it.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 231Q 231
The unilateral termination of the paramedic-patient relationship by the paramedic without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue is known as:
A) misfeasance.
B) abandonment.
C) assault.
D) battery.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 232Q 232
The degree of care, skill, and judgment that would be expected of any similarly trained, reasonable paramedic acting under similar circumstances is called the:
A) test of prudent actions.
B) standard of care.
C) duty to act.
D) scope of practice.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 233Q 233
DNR orders, durable powers of attorney, and living wills are forms of:
A) standards of care.
B) protocols.
C) advance directives.
D) medical orders.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 234Q 234
Which of the following statements about civil suits regarding torts is generally TRUE?
A) The burden of proof rests on the defendant.
B) The plaintiff seeks to recover damages from the defendant.
C) Guilt must be proven beyond a shadow of a reasonable doubt.
D) Intent to harm must be proven.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 235Q 235
A physician has ordered you to give a medication that you believe will harm your patient. Which of the following should you do?
A) Question the physician but carry out the order if the physician insists.
B) Contact a supervisor in the EMS system and request a second opinion.
C) Carry out the ordered treatment but note your objection in the patient care report.
D) Question the physician, refuse to carry out the order if the physician insists you do so, and document the incident.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 236Q 236
You have responded to a physician's office for a terminal cancer patient in cardiac arrest. The physician says, "This is a chemical code only. Just give the meds, but don't intubate or do CPR." Which of the following should you do?
A) Tell the physician you are bound to treat the patient according to protocol. If the physician would like you to do something different, she must take complete responsibility for patient care.
B) Comply with her orders on the scene to avoid a confrontation, but initiate appropriate care once you are in the back of the ambulance.
C) Tell the physician you cannot comply with her orders under any circumstances, and then file a report with the state medical licensing board about her negligence in this case.
D) Because this is the patient's personal physician, you must comply with her orders.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 237Q 237
Protecting those at risk is an example of a paramedic's ________ duty.
A) legal
B) medical-legal
C) ethical
D) moral
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 238Q 238
Which of the following is best described as the unlawful touching of another individual without the individual's consent?
A) Battery
B) Malpractice
C) Negligence
D) Assault
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 239Q 239
Paramedic Davis and his partner, EMT-I Smothers, are eating lunch in the hospital cafeteria and discussing the details of a call they ran last week on well-known news anchor Adam Best. Unbeknownst to Davis and Smothers, Mr. Best's co-anchor is sitting directly behind them listening to the details. Which of the following best describes the actions of Davis and Smothers?
A) Slander
B) Breach of confidentiality
C) Negligence
D) Libel
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 240Q 240
Which of the following is an example of good documentation?
A) Vital information is kept secret between you and your partner.
B) You use as many abbreviations as possible.
C) It is done prior to patient care.
D) It is thorough.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 241Q 241
An action or inaction by a paramedic that causes or worsens damages suffered by a patient is called the ________ of the damages.
A) precipitating agent
B) potential agent
C) primary cause
D) proximate cause
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 242Q 242
Most of the laws that OSHA can use to enact regulations and statutes are ________ laws.
A) constitutional
B) legislative
C) administrative
D) common
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 243Q 243
All of the following are matters of civil law, EXCEPT:
A) homicide.
B) marriage.
C) malpractice.
D) negligence.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 244Q 244
The four elements needed to sustain a charge of negligence against a paramedic are:
A) duty to act, actual damages, malicious intent, and significant harm.
B) breach of duty, actual damages, malicious intent, and reckless disregard of results.
C) duty to act, breach of that duty, actual damages, and proximate cause.
D) breach of duty, violation of EMS codes, proximate cause, and failure to document the action.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 245Q 245
Legal responsibility for a situation is known as:
A) liability.
B) primum non nocere.
C) negligence.
D) res ipsa loquitur.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 246Q 246
Which of the following is TRUE in the event that off-duty paramedics provide advanced life-support interventions at an emergency scene?
A) They are protected by Good Samaritan laws in all states.
B) It is permissible as long as they have valid certification or licensure in that state.
C) They will be granted immunity from negligence as long as they follow the standard of care.
D) They may be charged with practicing medicine without a license.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 247Q 247
"Case" law and "judge-made" law are other names for ________ law.
A) constitutional
B) common
C) legislative
D) administrative
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 248Q 248
A paramedic performs an intervention on a patient that is contrary to current practices. The patient suffers an injury as a result of that intervention. This is an example of:
A) malfeasance.
B) misfeasance.
C) nonfeasance.
D) antifeasance.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 249Q 249
A written statement of a patient's preference for future medical care is a(n):
A) power of attorney.
B) patient narrative.
C) deposition.
D) advance directive.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 250Q 250
OSHA's development of requirements to be followed at hazardous materials emergencies is an example of ________ law.
A) legislative
B) constitutional
C) common
D) administrative
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 251Q 251
In a lawsuit in which a paramedic has been charged with negligence, the paramedic is called the:
A) suspect
B) plaintiff
C) defendant
D) magistrate
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 252Q 252
The duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform while carrying out their jobs are called the:
A) National Standard Curriculum.
B) standing orders.
C) scope of practice.
D) treatment guidelines.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 253Q 253
Which of the following is NOT one of the common elements of Good Samaritan laws offering protection to people who assist at scenes of medical emergencies?
A) The person acted in good faith.
B) The person was not grossly negligent.
C) The person accepted no payment for his services.
D) The person attempted to contact qualified emergency personnel.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 254Q 254
The type of consent that must be obtained from a conscious, competent adult patient before a paramedic can begin treatment is called ________ consent.
A) implied
B) voluntary
C) ex officio
D) informed
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 255Q 255
Your patient is a competent adult who has given permission for treatment and transport. You have loaded the patient into the ambulance, but just before you are ready to leave the scene, she changes her mind and says she does not want to go to the hospital. Which of the following statements about this situation is TRUE?
A) You must obtain an emergency detention order to continue treatment.
B) She cannot withdraw consent after having given it.
C) She can now be treated using implied consent.
D) She can withdraw consent.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 256Q 256
A patient is involved in a car crash. When the paramedics arrive, he complains of neck pain but refuses to let the paramedics immobilize his spine. The paramedics explain the risks of refusing treatment and have the patient sign a release-from-liability form. The patient suffers minor neurological damage and later sues, charging negligence on the part of the paramedics. Which of the following best explains why the patient is NOT likely to be awarded damages?
A) There was contributory negligence on the part of the patient.
B) The paramedics did not have a duty to act.
C) There was no violation of the standard of care.
D) A monetary award cannot be assigned to the damages.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 257Q 257
A paramedic may treat an unconscious diabetic patient by relying on:
A) res ipsa loquitur.
B) implied consent.
C) primum non nocere.
D) informed consent.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 258Q 258
Which of the following is NOT a component of a civil suit?
A) Imprisonment
B) Incident
C) Investigation
D) Discovery
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 259Q 259
Injuring a person's name or character through false written statements is known as:
A) misfeasance.
B) libel.
C) slander.
D) perjury.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 260Q 260
You are treating a patient who you think needs an IV of lactated Ringer's. The patient, however, says he is frightened of needles and refuses to give his consent. If you display the IV catheter and bring it toward the patient, you may be charged with:
A) negligence.
B) assault.
C) battery.
D) libel.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 261Q 261
Generally, a patient under age 18 can be considered an emancipated minor in all of the following situations EXCEPT when the patient is a:
A) 16-year-old female who is the parent of a 1-year-old child.
B) 16-year-old living in foster care.
C) 17-year-old who is in the military.
D) 16-year-old female who is pregnant.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 262Q 262
Which of the following is NOT an important action to take when preserving physical evidence at a crime scene?
A) Once a crime scene has been deemed safe, initiate patient contact and medical care.
B) Do not move or touch anything at a crime scene unless it is necessary to do so for patient care.
C) Above all, protect yourself and the safety of other EMS personnel.
D) Report suspected child or elder abuse to the proper authorities.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 263Q 263
State laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases, and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to protect the patient's:
A) right to self-determination.
B) First Amendment rights.
C) confidentiality.
D) autonomy.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 264Q 264
The four fundamental principles or values used to resolve problems in bioethics today include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) beneficence.
B) maleficence.
C) autonomy.
D) egalitarianism.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 265Q 265
The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of:
A) beneficence.
B) democracy.
C) sovereignty.
D) justice.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 266Q 266
Your paramedic partner is telling you about a situation in which he resuscitated a patient with a DNR, even though the DNR was present and available to him at the time he began resuscitation. He tells you he is justified because the patient survived for a year after the incident and suffered no ill effects from the cardiac arrest or the resuscitation efforts. Which of the following best describes the ethical approach used by your partner?
A) Deontologicalism
B) Consequentialism
C) Ethical relativism
D) Self-determination
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 267Q 267
The idea that each person must decide how to behave and that whatever decision that person makes is acceptable is known as:
A) consequentialism.
B) the deontological method.
C) ethical relativism.
D) moral positivism.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 268Q 268
When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the:
A) impartiality test.
B) interpersonal justifiability test.
C) universalizability test.
D) rationalization test.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 269Q 269
The most common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are those involving:
A) administering expensive medications.
B) deciding whether to terminate resuscitative efforts.
C) triage in mass-casualty incidents.
D) transporting patients to high-quality versus low-quality hospitals.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 270Q 270
When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can vindicate your actions to others is known as the:
A) interpersonal justifiability test.
B) rationalization test.
C) impartiality test.
D) universalizability test.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 271Q 271
If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to:
A) cease resuscitation efforts.
B) check the patient's breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts.
C) continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction.
D) continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 272Q 272
Enforced racial segregation in the United States before the 1960s can best be described as:
A) illegal, but ethical.
B) legal, but unethical.
C) illegal and unethical.
D) legal and ethical.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 273Q 273
Rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are called:
A) regulations.
B) ethics.
C) morals.
D) statutes.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 274Q 274
You are on the scene where an 80-year-old woman is unresponsive and has shallow, snoring respirations. The patient's husband wants you to do nothing for the patient, but her daughter is crying and pleading with you to do something to help her mother. The patient lacks a DNR. The husband insists that his wife would not want to be "kept alive by machines." Which of the following is the most ethical course of action?
A) Follow the husband's wishes, because he has the legal authority to make the decision while the daughter does not.
B) Explain to the husband that you do not yet know what is wrong with his wife, that it may be something readily treatable, and that without a written order from her physician you cannot withhold treatment.
C) Consider how you would feel if it was your spouse or parent, and ask yourself what you would want done.
D) Find out more about the patient's medical history in an attempt to determine if resuscitative measures would be futile.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 275Q 275
Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are called:
A) morals.
B) culture.
C) common laws.
D) ethics.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 276Q 276
When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patient's place is known as the:
A) universalizability test.
B) rationalization test.
C) impartiality test.
D) interpersonal justifiability test.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 277Q 277
Which of the following questions should guide the paramedic in ethical decision making?
A) "Have I consulted with medical direction?"
B) "What legal liability will I face as a result of this action?"
C) "What is in the patient's best interest?"
D) "What do the system protocols say?"
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 278Q 278
Your patient is a 49-year-old woman with terminal cancer. She has a DNR order, but her family has called 911 because the patient is having difficulty breathing and seems to be very uncomfortable. Making the patient as comfortable as possible demonstrates the ethical principle of:
A) beneficence.
B) autonomy.
C) justice.
D) malfeasance.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 279Q 279
When students are working with patients under a preceptor in an EMS system, at what point should the preceptor inform the patients that their care, or part of it, is being performed by a student?
A) This information should not be revealed to the patient.
B) The patient should be informed after the procedure but only if there are no complications from the procedure.
C) The patient should be informed if he asks what the caregiver's qualifications are.
D) The patient should be informed before procedures are performed, and the student should be allowed to proceed only with the patient's consent.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 280Q 280
The right of competent people to determine what happens to their bodies is one example of the principle of:
A) autonomy.
B) libertarianism.
C) democracy.
D) agency.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 281Q 281
You are driving home late one night from a state-to-state interhospital transport. You are still in the other state driving home at 0200 hours when you come upon a single-vehicle MVC on a deserted stretch of the highway. You stop your ambulance, and you and your partner assess the scene and find out there is only one occupant of the vehicle and that the victim is unresponsive. If you initiate care and transport the patient to a hospital without summoning local EMS or fire, your actions could be considered:
A) illegal.
B) unethical.
C) inappropriate.
D) unnecessary.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 282Q 282
Failure to stop and render assistance could be perceived by the patient's family or other EMS providers as being:
A) illegal.
B) unethical.
C) appropriate.
D) unnecessary.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 283Q 283
Which of the following is not typically addressed in a code of ethics?
A) nondiscrimination
B) fitness requirements
C) social responsibility
D) responsible publication
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 284Q 284
A(n) ________ system uses a computer to route transmissions to the first available frequency.
A) repeater
B) digital
C) encrypted
D) trunked
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 285Q 285
Which of the following is most effective in helping the dispatcher get information from distressed callers?
A) Having supervisors get on the line with the callers
B) A standard set of medically approved questions
C) Empathetic pauses to allow the callers to collect their thoughts
D) Transferring callers to a consulting-nurse advice line
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 286Q 286
The type of communication system that works like a telephone is:
A) ultrasimplex.
B) multiplex.
C) simplex.
D) duplex.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 287Q 287
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for effective radio use?
A) Press the transmit button for one second before speaking.
B) Use codes that are part of the international EMS system.
C) Speak in a normal pitch, keeping your voice free of emotion.
D) Do not waste airtime with unnecessary information.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 288Q 288
Paramedics and other EMTs becoming affordable in rural communities and also helping to fill gaps in primary health care services is a concept of:
A) community paramedicine.
B) creation of ad hoc databases.
C) medical quality video.
D) public safety answering points.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 289Q 289
The acronym PSAP stands for:
A) paramedic system answering point.
B) prehospital safety and prevention.
C) public safety answering point.
D) public safety agency paramedics.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 290Q 290
Cellular telephone systems use ________ to transmit communications.
A) shortwave technology
B) underground cables
C) satellite technology
D) regional radio base stations
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 291Q 291
The dispatcher's directions to the caller for appropriate emergency measures are known as:
A) enhanced 911 service.
B) priority dispatching.
C) prearrival instructions.
D) call coordination.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 292Q 292
Without formal transfer of care to the receiving hospital, paramedics could be charged with:
A) malpractice.
B) abuse.
C) abandonment.
D) neglect.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 293Q 293
Because only the necessary resources are sent on each call, priority dispatching has which of the following benefits?
A) Minimizes responder responsibilities
B) Saves time and money
C) Reduces patient anxiety
D) Keeps dispatchers alert
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 294Q 294
Which of the following is the key link in the chain that results in the best possible patient outcome?
A) Conceptualization
B) Communication
C) Coordination
D) Confrontation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 295Q 295
In terms of written communication, a neat and complete PCR is a good indicator of which of the following paramedic traits?
A) Professionalism
B) Compassion
C) Promotion suitability
D) Education level
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 296Q 296
How can AACN improve outcomes with seriously injured patients?
A) Assisting with field triage destination and transportation decisions
B) Increasing response times by prehospital care providers
C) Predicting the unlikelihood of serious injury among vehicle occupants
D) Increasing the time it takes for patients to receive definitive trauma care
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 297Q 297
Multiplex systems transmit:
A) voice simultaneously in two ways.
B) on the same frequency as they receive.
C) using digital encryption technology.
D) voice and data simultaneously.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 298Q 298
The prehospital care report is all of the following EXCEPT a(n):
A) legal record of the incident.
B) public record.
C) indicator of professionalism.
D) part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 299Q 299
What is the last step in the sequence of communications during an EMS response?
A) Calling 911
B) Transferring communications
C) Emergency medical dispatch
D) Citizen detection and access
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 300Q 300
The emergency medical dispatcher has just finished interrogating a caller. The next step would be for the dispatcher to:
A) follow established guidelines to determine the appropriate level of response.
B) call the patient's insurance company for preapproval.
C) transfer care of the patient to the receiving facility with a hand-off report.
D) send a first responder engine company and paramedics.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 301Q 301
Systems that transmit and receive on the same frequency are ________ systems.
A) multiplex
B) duplex
C) simplex
D) trunked
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 302Q 302
All of the following are other technology applications with broadband implications that the national EMS communications initiatives have suggested, EXCEPT:
A) patient multi-vital-signs monitoring.
B) infrared crowd disease detection.
C) wire-based speech-to-monitor transcription.
D) creation of ad hoc multicomponent patient databases.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 303Q 303
Which of the following radio waves can penetrate through concrete and steel?
A) UHF
B) VHF
C) ICT
D) GIS
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 304Q 304
You are giving a report to the base physician. After stating the patient's age, sex, and weight, you should next:
A) give the patient's chief complaint.
B) give the hospital the ETA.
C) relay treatments already rendered
D) request specific orders.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 305Q 305
Without proper terminology and verbal communications skills, the receiver will be unable to ________ the message.
A) decode
B) resend
C) encode
D) receive
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 306Q 306
Immediate repetition of medical orders received during radio communications is known as the:
A) verification protocol.
B) echo procedure.
C) standard format.
D) response algorithm.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 307Q 307
Regulation of communications at the federal level includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) licensing technical personnel.
B) establishing technical standards.
C) establishing terminology.
D) allocating radio frequencies.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 308Q 308
Information on the prehospital care reports may be used by which of the following in certain circumstances?
A) Hospital staff
B) Insurance claims departments
C) Attorneys
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 309Q 309
The main duties of the dispatcher, after sending the responders and providing prearrival instructions, include:
A) transferring communications.
B) discussing medical direction.
C) directing the crew to an appropriate receiving facility.
D) supporting and coordinating.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 310Q 310
What is semantics?
A) A standard format for delivering information
B) The meaning of words
C) Effective communications
D) Process of exchanging information between individuals
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 311Q 311
The practice of notifying a receiving hospital of an ambulance's impending arrival began in the:
A) 1960s.
B) 1970s.
C) 1980s.
D) 1990s.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 312Q 312
Which of the following best explains the reason for the need to communicate effectively with other responders?
A) To coordinate and implement the treatment plan
B) To summon EMS through a PSAP
C) To make sure you can recover your equipment afterward
D) To exchange career information
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 313Q 313
Medical audits, research, and policy changes can improve patient care through information collected from:
A) prehospital care reports.
B) crew activity logs.
C) vehicle maintenance logs.
D) disciplinary action records.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 314Q 314
The verbal report to the receiving hospital should always include vital information, chief complaint, and:
A) personal physician's information.
B) treatments rendered.
C) next-of-kin name and telephone number.
D) EMS unit status.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 315Q 315
In addition to giving emergency instruction to the caller, a dispatcher can also use prearrival instructions to: 1. comfort a distressed caller.
2) elicit additional information.
3) provide emotional support.
4) coordinate responders.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 316Q 316
In addition to being a part of your patient's medical record, a written report can also be used as:
A) a representation of the care you provided.
B) a legal record.
C) a document used for continuous quality improvement.
D) all of the above.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 317Q 317
________ communications are condensed and ease the overcrowding of radio frequencies.
A) Cellular
B) Analog
C) Digital
D) Telephone
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 318Q 318
The first part of the EMS response to an incident is:
A) discussion with medical direction.
B) prearrival instructions.
C) detection and citizen access.
D) call coordination.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 319Q 319
In most systems, 911 callers are first routed to the ________, which then sends the call to ________.
A) EMS-C; PSAP
B) PSAP; base station
C) EMD; PAAP
D) PSAP; EMD
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 320Q 320
The federal agency that controls and regulates nongovernmental communications is the:
A) FCC.
B) FAC.
C) FCA.
D) FAA.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 321Q 321
Specialized terms for radio use enhance communications by:
A) lengthening airtime and transmitting thoughts quickly.
B) shortening airtime and transmitting thoughts quickly.
C) rationing airtime and transmitting thoughts reasonably accurately.
D) shortening airtime and transmitting thoughts reasonably accurately.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 322Q 322
The ________, the public's first contact with the EMS system, plays a crucial role in every EMS response.
A) emergency medical technician
B) emergency medical dispatcher
C) paramedic
D) first responder
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 323Q 323
The transfer of care to the receiving facility staff should always include:
A) physician examination of the report.
B) a formal verbal briefing.
C) a nurse signature on the prehospital chart.
D) immediate notification to the dispatcher that the unit is back in service.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 324Q 324
The prehospital care report (PCR) is a written record of events that includes administrative and ________ information.
A) weather
B) medical
C) vehicle maintenance
D) extraneous
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 325Q 325
The process of interrogating callers with medical questions to elicit information and then determine the proper level of response is known as:
A) telephone triage.
B) acuity assignment.
C) call queueing.
D) priority dispatching.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 326Q 326
How do reports to the base physician differ for trauma and medical patients?
A) It is less important to include ETA for medical patients.
B) Only trauma patients require a description of the scene.
C) Medical reports describe a chief complaint, whereas trauma reports do not.
D) Medical reports emphasize history; trauma reports emphasize injuries and exam findings.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 327Q 327
Using terminology widely accepted by the emergency services and medical community when giving a report to emergency department personnel is important because:
A) semantics enhance effective communication.
B) the receiver must be able to decode the message.
C) verbal communication is the preferred medium.
D) "10-codes" are meaningless to physicians.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 328Q 328
One of the first bits of information to be transmitted to the base physician is the:
A) estimated time of arrival to the hospital.
B) request for specific orders.
C) unit and provider information.
D) treatments already rendered.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 329Q 329
Health organizations are responding to the rise of VOIP phones and the ability to send photos, videos, and text messages from mobile devices via the Internet with:
A) an initiative called Next Generation 911 (NG-911).
B) advanced automatic crash notification (AACN).
C) a coordinated system known as priority dispatching.
D) computerized hand-off reports.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 330Q 330
The subjective narrative includes information that is elicited:
A) during history taking.
B) from public records.
C) by observing the patient's actions.
D) from dispatch information.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 331Q 331
The best method for completing the narrative section of the PCR is:
A) dependent on the nature of the call.
B) the CHART format.
C) the patient management format.
D) the SOAP format.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 332Q 332
An addition or a supplement to an original report is called a(n):
A) supplement.
B) add-on.
C) addendum.
D) appendix.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 333Q 333
When your patient refuses care and transportation, even though you have communicated to the patient that you feel it is necessary, the patient is refusing:
A) against medical control (AMC).
B) with impaired decision-making (WID).
C) with informed consent (WIC).
D) against medical advice (AMA).
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 334Q 334
The paramedic's general impression is documented in the:
A) subjective narrative.
B) assessment/management plan.
C) objective narrative.
D) diagnosis section.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 335Q 335
Which of the following refers to the time between dispatch of a unit and its arrival on the scene?
A) On-scene
B) Response
C) Dispatch
D) Transport
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 336Q 336
What is the problem with the treatment in the following narrative? The pt. complained of chest pain x 2 days before calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, HR 40, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival the pt. felt better.
A) No dosages are stated.
B) The patient should have received transcutaneous pacing.
C) Nothing documented supports the treatment given.
D) A and C are both problematic.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 337Q 337
The format that uses a chronological account from the time of arrival on scene to the time of transfer of care is known as:
A) patient management.
B) body systems.
C) head-to-toe.
D) SOAP.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 338Q 338
The only truly factual record of the events on an EMS call is the:
A) emergency department chart.
B) prehospital care report.
C) communications center report.
D) medical control report.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 339Q 339
Pertinent clinical information should be documented in the:
A) subjective narrative.
B) objective narrative.
C) treatment section.
D) clinical narrative.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 340Q 340
An essential component of good documentation is the appropriate use of:
A) subjective opinions.
B) administrative research.
C) medical terminology.
D) medical metaphors.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 341Q 341
Which of the following documents containing vital information is affixed to the patient during large-scale incidents with multiple patients?
A) MedicAlert tags
B) PCRs
C) MCI narratives
D) Triage tags
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 343Q 343
Which of the following allows you to increase the amount of information you can quickly and efficiently write on your PCR?
A) Acronyms and abbreviations
B) Pertinent negatives
C) Time stamps
D) Medical terms
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 344Q 344
Which of the following types of records provides the basis for continuous improvement of patient care in the EMS system?
A) EMS supervisor administrative reports
B) Medical control radio logs
C) Prehospital care reports
D) The dispatch center log
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 345Q 345
The prehospital care report should document all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) objective observations.
B) treatments provided.
C) pertinent negatives.
D) subjective opinions.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 346Q 346
You are completing your PCR and cannot remember the correct spelling of a medical term. You should:
A) try to spell the word, even if you are wrong.
B) make up an abbreviation for the word.
C) cross out the sentence and indicate an error.
D) use plain English instead.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 347Q 347
The abbreviation Hgb stands for:
A) millimeters of mercury.
B) hematocrit.
C) history.
D) hemoglobin.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 348Q 348
What is one of the common problems with documenting times?
A) Medical terminology
B) Abbreviations and acronyms
C) Inconsistencies between dispatch and ambulance clocks
D) Check boxes
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 349Q 349
Confidentiality of a patient's prehospital care report is:
A) forfeited by the patient when he consents to treatment.
B) not applicable to patients who are not expected to survive.
C) not applicable to noncitizens.
D) the patient's legal right.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 350Q 350
Which of the following individuals may make changes and additions to the original chart?
A) The medical direction physician
B) The original author's partner
C) The original author
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 351Q 351
Missing information, inaccurate data, and illegible documentation all give the impression of a(n):
A) incompetent provider.
B) busy shift.
C) typical EMS patient care report.
D) practiced paramedic whose reputation speaks for itself.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 352Q 352
You respond to a call and the police and fire departments are on the scene, as well as a physician. Which of the following should you mention in your PCR?
A) Fire department only
B) Fire department and the physician only
C) Police, fire, and the physician
D) Police only
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 353Q 353
A well-written prehospital care report is: 1. accurate.
2) legible.
3) without alterations.
4) professional.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) All of the above
D) None of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 354Q 354
When using direct patient statements, you should:
A) identify the quote with quotation marks.
B) have your partner or another witness initial the statement.
C) use the SOAP format.
D) have the patient initial his agreement with them, if his condition permits.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 355Q 355
When possible, who should be asked to read and review the PCR before you submit it as complete?
A) Only you and your partner
B) Only you
C) Only you, your partner, and the patient
D) All EMS providers participating in patient care on the call
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 356Q 356
What is the chief complaint in the following narrative? The pt. stated he had chest pain x 2 days before calling EMS. Pt. denies SOB. Vitals: BP 90/50, respirations labored with retractions, HR 44. Rx: O2 and atropine 0.5 mg IVP. Upon arrival, the pt. reported feeling better.
A) Chest pain
B) Hypotension
C) Labored respirations
D) Shortness of breath
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 357Q 357
The narrative approach that focuses only on the areas involved in the current illness or injury is the ________ approach.
A) body systems
B) toe-to-head
C) focused exam
D) head-to-toe
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 358Q 358
"The 45-year-old patient had CP and was complaining of leg and arm pains." In this example, the abbreviation CP stands for:
A) cerebral palsy.
B) cerebral perfusion.
C) chest pain.
D) unable to determine.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 359Q 359
Which of the following situations poses an even greater risk of liability to the paramedic than patient refusal of care?
A) Denying transport to an apparently stable patient who insists he needs an ambulance
B) Transporting minors, with or without their consent
C) Transporting a mentally incompetent individual against his wishes
D) Having the patient who wants to refuse speak directly with a medical control physician
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 360Q 360
In filling out your prehospital care report, you want to document that your patient had a laceration to his right hand secondary to a fall. How would you abbreviate "secondary to?"
A) 2°
B) 2/
C) 2@
D) 2nd
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 361Q 361
Which is the most important reason for NOT trying to complete the PCR during the ride to the hospital?
A) Your time is better spent performing ongoing assessments.
B) You must communicate with the medical control physician.
C) There is an increased chance of error.
D) The ride is bumpy and the chart will be illegible.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 362Q 362
Instead of using the words heart attack, the paramedic could use the abbreviation:
A) AMI.
B) CP.
C) AHA.
D) HA.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 363Q 363
Which words are spelled incorrectly in the following narrative? Pt. is a 53 y/o male with pain to the upper thoracks and neck 2- to past history. Pt. has a history of a heart attack and takes KCl, HCTZ, and aspirin.
1) Thoracks
2) Heart attack
3) Aspirin
4) History
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) None of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 364Q 364
An accurate prehospital care report includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) proper acronyms.
B) approved abbreviations.
C) addenda from supervisors.
D) proper spelling.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 365Q 365
All of the following are part of the standard patient documentation narrative, EXCEPT a(n):
A) assessment/management plan.
B) subjective narrative.
C) financial assessment.
D) objective narrative.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 366Q 366
The narrative format that focuses on immediate management of a variety of patient problems is called:
A) body systems.
B) SOAP.
C) patient management.
D) objective-subjective.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 367Q 367
Writing false or malicious words intended to damage a person's character is called:
A) character assassination.
B) bad faith.
C) slander.
D) libel.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 368Q 368
The call incident approach for narrative writing emphasizes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) how the incident occurred.
B) absolute chronological order.
C) surrounding circumstances.
D) mechanism of injury.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 369Q 369
Which of the following would be most useful for paramedics to carry with them as an aid to proper documentation?
A) Pocket-sized thesaurus
B) Copy of previous charts
C) Pocket-sized medical dictionary
D) Quality assurance policy
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 370Q 370
Why do patient refusals warrant more thorough documentation than typical EMS calls?
A) Additional witnesses must be quoted.
B) The patient is usually not competent.
C) There is more time available before the next assignment.
D) The potential for abandonment charges is greater.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 371Q 371
Why should the PCR be completed immediately after the call?
A) The medical control physician must sign it.
B) You must get back in service.
C) The information is fresh in your mind.
D) The receiving facility demands it.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 372Q 372
Which of the following statements is inappropriate for a prehospital care report?
A) The patient had trouble walking.
B) The patient's appearance indicated a lack of self-care.
C) The patient was intoxicated.
D) The patient stated, "I feel fine."
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 373Q 373
You are allowed to share the information in patient charts with all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) law enforcement officials, in specific situations.
B) third-party billing companies.
C) medical professionals providing continuing care.
D) other paramedics not on the call.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 374Q 374
To correct an error on the PCR, the paramedic should:
A) make it a habit to use erasable ink so mistakes can be completely erased.
B) cross it out with one line and initial it.
C) block it out completely.
D) use correction fluid matching the paper color of each copy of the PCR.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 375Q 375
Use of prehospital care reports for quality improvement is an example of their ________ use.
A) medical
B) administrative
C) patient care
D) legal
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 376Q 376
Which of the following is the paramedic's interpretation of the patient's problem?
A) Chief complaint
B) Subjective opinion
C) Patient complaints
D) Field diagnosis
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 377Q 377
Seeking and recording pertinent negatives demonstrates which of the following?
A) Charting by exception
B) Thoroughness of your examination
C) Thoughtfulness of your care
D) Use of the PERT-NEG format
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 378Q 378
The standard charting abbreviation for nitroglycerin is:
A) NTG.
B) NGT.
C) Nitro.
D) N2O.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 379Q 379
What is the patient's heart rate in the following narrative? The pt. complained of CP x 2 days before calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival, the pt. reported feeling better.
A) 50
B) 90
C) 40
D) Cannot be determined
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 380Q 380
Which of the following best describes why abbreviations and acronyms can cause confusion and problems?
A) They are not universally accepted by all EMS agencies.
B) Nursing uses a different set of abbreviations and acronyms.
C) Some abbreviations and acronyms can have multiple meanings.
D) Physicians use a different set of abbreviations and acronyms.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 381Q 381
The ultimate responsibility for documentation belongs to the:
A) agency's administration.
B) paramedic writing the PCR.
C) medical control physician.
D) receiving nurse.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 382Q 382
One common pattern for organizing a narrative report is identified by the mnemonic:
A) CHART.
B) OPRST.
C) SAMPLE.
D) DCHART-E.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 383Q 383
Careful, thorough documentation has the effect of ________ frivolous lawsuits.
A) eliminating
B) defeating
C) discouraging
D) encouraging
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 384Q 384
Under what circumstances should paramedics try to hide charting errors?
A) Always
B) When directed to by a supervisor or superior officer
C) When a lawsuit is probable
D) Never
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 385Q 385
The objective narrative portion of documentation contains information on the:
A) history of the present illness.
B) current health status.
C) chief complaint.
D) physical exam.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 386Q 386
The unofficial language used by a particular group or profession is known as ________ and can be confusing when included on a PCR.
A) terminology
B) semantics
C) slang
D) jargon
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 387Q 387
Which of the following words is an example of proper medical terminology?
A) Belly
B) Thorax
C) Jawbone
D) Chest
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 388Q 388
Why is it important for billing companies to have complete PCRs?
A) They can decide what to bill for.
B) They require all information for accurate billing.
C) They provide quality assurance audits as part of their service.
D) They are required by law to collect the complete PCR.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 389Q 389
Who would be held MOST responsible if poor prehospital documentation results in inappropriate continuing medical care?
A) The patient, if he was uncooperative
B) The paramedic who wrote the document
C) The paramedic agency and its medical director
D) The physician who ordered the continuing medical care
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 390Q 390
If a legal case is brought against you, your best defense in court is usually:
A) the dispatch log.
B) your immediate recollection of events.
C) a complete and accurate PCR.
D) your partner's corroborating testimony.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 391Q 391
Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. In ruling out congestive heart failure, the absence of swollen ankles would be a:
A) false positive finding.
B) false negative finding.
C) pertinent negative finding.
D) true positive finding.
Free
Multiple Choice
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 393Q 393
When using a prehospital care report for research or quality assurance, you should block out the:
A) patient's identifying information.
B) vital signs.
C) paramedics' names.
D) treatments rendered.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 394Q 394
Patient and bystander quotes belong in the ________ section.
A) objective narrative
B) subjective narrative
C) assessment/management plan
D) quotation
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 395Q 395
A major concern of psychosocial development for many adults in middle adulthood is:
A) awareness that the time in which they can accomplish their life's goals is becoming shorter.
B) finding love and having children.
C) a sense of self-worth.
D) the development of a personal code of ethics.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 396Q 396
When infants are uncertain about whether their caregivers will be responsive when needed, they may develop ________ attachment.
A) mistrusting
B) insecure
C) anxious resistant
D) anxious avoidant
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 397Q 397
To which of the following conditions are infants especially susceptible?
A) Nasal congestion
B) Dehydration
C) Fatigue due to increased respiratory effort
D) All of the above
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 398Q 398
The highest levels of job stress typically occur in the ________ years.
A) early adult
B) adolescent
C) middle adult
D) late adult
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 399Q 399
By the age of 80, cardiac vessel elasticity has decreased by approximately ________ percent.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 400Q 400
The normal heart rate of a toddler ranges from ________ to ________ beats per minute.
A) 120; 180
B) 100; 120
C) 80; 110
D) 60; 80
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 401Q 401
Preconventional reasoning is characterized by an orientation toward:
A) concern with community rights.
B) punishment and obedience.
C) concern with interpersonal norms.
D) concern with universal ethical principles.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 402Q 402
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex in the infant?
A) When the infant's cheek is stroked, he turns his head in that direction.
B) When the infant's lips are touched, he makes sucking motions.
C) When startled, the infant throws his arms out wide, then grasps with the fingers and arms.
D) The infant's hand grasps an object placed in the palm of the hand.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 403Q 403
Infants and children learn by building on what they have already learned, a technique known as:
A) cognition.
B) scaffolding.
C) attachment.
D) bonding.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 404Q 404
Which of the following fluids helps the newborn infant's lungs remain open by reducing surface tension of the alveoli?
A) Amniotic fluid
B) Vernix caseosa
C) Surfactant
D) Meconium
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 405Q 405
Which of the following best describes an authoritarian parent?
A) Responsive to the needs and wishes of the children
B) Expectant that the partner will discipline the children
C) Demanding and desiring instant obedience
D) Tolerant, with an accepting view of his children's behavior
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 406Q 406
Which of the following guidelines applies when interviewing an adolescent patient?
A) Try to have a parent or peer stay with the patient.
B) Conduct the interview in private.
C) Remember that, although they look grown up, adolescents still want to be treated like children.
D) Avoid asking questions about sensitive topics such as substance abuse and sexual activity.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 407Q 407
Which of the following statements about the physiological changes associated with aging is TRUE?
A) There is a 25 to 30 percent increase in kidney mass due to hypertrophy.
B) Impaired insulin use and glucose metabolism result in weight loss.
C) Decreased elasticity of the lung tissue results in a smaller lung volume.
D) Blood vessel walls thicken, reducing blood flow to end organs and causing blood pressure to rise.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 408Q 408
Which of the following best describes the development of the sensory portion of the nervous system in infants?
A) They can feel pain but cannot isolate the sensation.
B) They both feel pain and can localize the sensation.
C) They have not yet developed an acute sense of pain.
D) None of the above is accurate.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 409Q 409
Which of the following serves as a guideline for the expected weight of a 4- to 6-month-old child?
A) Increased birth weight by 2 to 3 pounds
B) Tripled his birth weight
C) Gained at least 5 pounds
D) Doubled his birth weight
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 410Q 410
The normal birth weight of a full-term newborn infant is ________ kg.
A) 2.0 to 2.5
B) 4.0 to 4.5
C) 1.0 to 1.5
D) 3.0 to 3.5
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 411Q 411
A child's hearing reaches maturity at:
A) 12 to 18 months.
B) 2 to 3 years.
C) 3 to 4 years.
D) 5 to 6 years.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 412Q 412
A newborn typically sleeps ________ hours in a 24-hour period.
A) 8 to 10
B) 12 to 16
C) 16 to 18
D) 18 to 22
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 413Q 413
Psychological readiness for toilet training generally occurs at age ________ months.
A) 12 to 15
B) 15 to 24
C) 18 to 30
D) 24 to 36
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 414Q 414
When palpating the head of a 12-month-old infant, it would be normal to feel the ________ fontanelle.
A) occipital
B) sphenoid
C) anterior
D) posterior
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 415Q 415
An infant's ventilatory rate generally is too fast to sustain adequate tidal volume when the rate is over ________ breaths per minute.
A) 60
B) 50
C) 40
D) 30
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 416Q 416
"Magical thinking" begins at age ________ months.
A) 12 to 18
B) 18 to 24
C) 24 to 36
D) 36 to 48
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 417Q 417
School-age children usually develop all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) an extreme sense of privacy.
B) decision-making skills.
C) self-concept.
D) self-esteem.
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 418Q 418
Infants should typically be able to sit up in a high chair and make one-syllable sounds by the age of ________ months.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 419Q 419
In the early-adulthood age bracket, what is the leading cause of death?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Accidental trauma
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Seizure disorders
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 420Q 420
At what stage does exploratory behavior accelerate playing simple games, following basic rules, and displaying early signs of competitiveness?
A) Preschooler
B) Toddler
C) School age
D) Adolescent
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 421Q 421
________ parents take a tolerant, accepting view of their children's behavior, including aggressive behavior and sexual behavior.
A) Permissive
B) Authoritative
C) Authoritarian
D) Divorced
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 422Q 422
________ take "time out" to experiment with a variety of identities, knowing that they do NOT have to assume responsibility for the consequences of those identities.
A) Adolescents
B) Preschoolers
C) Toddlers
D) School agers
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 423Q 423
Adults in this age group are more concerned with the "social clock" and become more task oriented as they see the time for accomplishing their lifetime goals recede.
A) Middle adulthood
B) Early adulthood
C) Late adulthood
D) Adolescents
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 424Q 424
What is the theoretical, species-specific, longest duration of life, excluding premature or "unnatural" death called?
A) Maximum life span
B) Life expectancy
C) Maximum duration
D) Theoretical duration
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 425Q 425
In which stage of development do the trachea and large airways increase in diameter and enlargement of the end units of the airway results in a decreased surface area of the lungs?
A) Late adulthood
B) Middle adulthood
C) Early adulthood
D) Adolescence
Free
Multiple Choice
Q 426Q 426
A decrease in cognitive functioning over a five-year period prior to death is termed:
A) terminal drop.
B) postconventional reasoning.
C) slow-to-warm-up effect.
D) scaffolding.