Quiz 2: Cardiology

Which of the following risk factors has been proven to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease? A) Oral contraceptive use B) Type A personality C) Stress D) Lack of exercise

Public education about cardiovascular disease focuses on: A) risk factors and signs and symptoms of CVD. B) CPR and public access defibrillation. C) CPR and signs and symptoms of CVD. D) risk factors and public-access defibrillation.

The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the ________ valve. A) bicuspid B) pulmonic C) tricuspid D) aortic

Blood entering the left atrium arrives via the: A) bicuspid valve. B) superior and inferior vena cava. C) pulmonary vein. D) pulmonary artery.

The first part of the aorta as it leaves the heart is the: A) aortic arch. B) thoracic aorta. C) descending aorta. D) ascending aorta.

Your patient is a 54-year-old male who is unresponsive and cyanotic and has agonal respirations. A "quick look" shows ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following is most important when determining the immediate treatment of this patient? A) How long he has been "down" B) Whether he has a pulse C) Whether he is allergic to lidocaine D) Whether he has an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator

ECG findings associated with hypokalemia include: A) U waves and flat T waves. B) U waves and an Osborn wave. C) an Osborn wave and a "J" wave. D) flattened T waves and a widened QRS complex.

The presence of inverted T waves on an ECG indicates: A) myocardial infarction. B) myocardial necrosis. C) myocardial ischemia. D) myocardial injury.

The pressure in the left ventricle at the end of diastole is called: A) after. B) preload. C) ejection fraction. D) stroke volume.

Typical stroke volume is about ________ of the volume of the left ventricle. A) one-third B) one-half C) two-thirds D) three-quarters

Which of the following items is most likely to interfere with the function of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? A) Magnet B) Cellular telephone C) Television remote control D) Hair dryer

The first phase of the cardiac cycle is: A) systole. B) diastole. C) contraction. D) ejection.

For a resting potential in a cardiac cell to exist, there must be an: A) adequate number of potassium ions inside the cell and sodium ions outside the cell. B) adequate number of sodium ions inside the cell and potassium ions outside the cell. C) influx of calcium ions into the cell. D) ionic equilibrium between the inside and outside of the cell.

The proportion of the left ventricular volume that is pumped out of the heart during systole is the: A) ejection fraction. B) stroke volume. C) preload. D) afterload.

Beta-blockers generally have which of the following effects? A) Increased cardiac conduction B) Decreased myocardial contractility C) Vasoconstriction D) Increased myocardial contractility

Your patient is found sitting on the edge of the bathtub with cool, diaphoretic skin. She states she became lightheaded and nearly "passed out" while vomiting. Your cardiac monitor shows a sinus bradycardia at a rate of 48. Which of the following is most likely? A) Sick sinus syndrome B) Use of sympathomimetic medications C) Disease of the cardiac conduction system D) Increased parasympathetic tone

When the ECG paper is traveling at the standard rate of 25 mm/sec, a large box in the horizontal direction equals: A) 0.08 seconds. B) 0.12 seconds. C) 0.20 seconds. D) 0.24 seconds.

Which of the following will occur with an increase in peripheral vascular resistance? A) Decreased stroke volume B) Increased ejection fraction C) Increased preload D) Decreased afterload

There are 15 small boxes between R waves on an ECG tracing. What is the heart rate? A) 150 B) 120 C) 100 D) 20

If the stroke volume decreased, which of the following would occur to maintain the blood pressure at its current value? A) Increased heart rate and increased peripheral vascular resistance B) Decreased heart rate and decreased peripheral vascular resistance C) Increased heart rate and decreased peripheral vascular resistance D) Decreased heart rate and increased peripheral vascular resistance

You have administered a drug with potent beta-1 effects. Which of the following effects should you most anticipate? A) Smooth muscle relaxation B) Peripheral vasoconstriction C) Increased heart rate D) Peripheral vasodilation

You have administered a medication to a patient, resulting in a decreased speed of cardiac impulse conduction. This drug is most accurately described as having a ________ effect. A) negative dromotropic B) negative chronotropic C) positive dromotropic D) positive chronotropic

Which of the following endocrine substances acts as a marker for congestive heart failure? A) BNP B) Angiotensin C) ACTH D) Troponin

To detect life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, the paramedic must view the ECG in ________ lead(s). A) two B) one C) three D) twelve

The total duration of ventricular depolarization is represented by the ________ on the ECG. A) QRS duration B) QT interval C) PQ interval D) R-R interval

Which of the following statements concerning Q waves on the ECG is most accurate? A) Q waves are not a normal finding on the ECG. B) The absence of a Q wave is a significant pathophysiological finding. C) A Q wave is significant if it is 0.04 or more seconds wide. D) A Q wave is only significant in the presence of chest pain.

Which of the following is most characteristic of right heart failure? A) JVD, peripheral edema, and pulmonary edema B) Rales, cough productive of blood-tinged sputum C) Ascites, peripheral edema, and cyanosis D) JVD, peripheral edema, and liver and spleen engorgement

The anterior surface of the heart is best viewed by ECG leads: A) II, III, and aVF. B) V₁-V_4. C) I and aVL. D) aVR, aVL, and aVF.

While monitoring a patient's cardiac rhythm, you note that there is no electrical activity after a PQRST complex for a period equal to exactly three of the previous R-R intervals. This is most accurately described as: A) sinus arrest. B) sinus pause. C) sinus arrhythmia. D) sinus block.

A 48-year-old male is sitting upright in bed in respiratory distress. He describes an acute onset of difficulty breathing and chest pain during the night that has been worsening for the past 3 hours. He also complains of nausea. Pain is described as a substernal pressure radiating to his left shoulder. Physical examination reveals cool, diaphoretic skin and rales on auscultation bilaterally. Medical history includes two prior myocardial infarctions. Medications include Zestril and metoprolol. HR = 132, BP = 140/100, RR = 25, SaO₂ = 92%. Which of the following is NOT indicated? A) Adenosine B) Enalapril C) Morphine D) Nitroglycerin

Which of the following is the most likely result of increased pulmonary artery pressure? A) Increased left ventricular workload and cor pulmonale B) Increased right ventricular workload and cor pulmonale C) Decreased right atrial workload and right ventricular hypertrophy D) Increased left ventricular workload and congestive heart failure

The difference between apical and peripheral pulse rates that results from decreased cardiac output when the atria fail to contract is known as: A) pulsus paradoxus. B) pulse deficit. C) pulsus alternans. D) paroxysmal pulse pressure.

Elastic and smooth muscle fibers are primarily found in the tunica ________ of blood vessels. A) collateralus B) media C) adventitia D) intima

________ is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg with inspiration. A) Electrical alternans B) Pulsus alternans C) Pulse deficit D) Pulsus paradoxus

Which of the following most accurately differentiates cardioversion from defibrillation? A) Cardioversion is timed to be synchronous with the patient's R wave. B) Cardioversion requires fewer than 100 joules. C) The electrical stimulation of cardioversion travels at a slower rate through the myocardium. D) Cardioversion cannot be used in patients who have a pulse.

A 67-year-old male is unconscious, is sitting in a chair, and has agonal respirations. His wife states that he was up all night with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort but would not go to the hospital. Physical examination reveals pink, frothy sputum in the airway; cold, diaphoretic skin; and rales audible without a stethoscope. HR = 108, BP = 74 mmHg by palpation, RR = 4, SaO₂ = 82%. The monitor shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the highest priority when treating this patient? A) Immediate transport B) Determining whether the patient has a Do Not Resuscitate order C) Dopamine infusion D) Intubation

Measures to treat cardiogenic shock include all of the following EXCEPT: A) reducing stroke volume. B) increasing the contractile force. C) improving preload. D) reducing peripheral resistance.

PSVT is least likely to occur secondary to: A) stress. B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. C) myocardial infarction. D) ingestion of caffeine.

A 35-year-old male is complaining of a headache, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension but is noncompliant with his medications. His pupils are equal and reactive, his skin is warm and dry, and his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. HR = 122, BP = 202/138, RR = 12, SaO₂ = 99%. In addition to monitoring his cardiac rhythm, administering oxygen, and starting an IV at a KVO rate, which of the following is most appropriate? A) Labetalol, IV B) Diazepam, IV C) Nitroglycerin, SL D) Morphine, IV

Which of the following most accurately describes the etiology of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome? A) Presence of an accessory conduction pathway B) Idiopathic C) Increased automaticity D) Shifting supraventricular pacemaker sites

Which of the following is NOT considered a modifiable risk factor for coronary heart disease? A) Stress B) Gender C) Obesity D) Diet

Signs and symptoms of decreased tissue perfusion secondary to cardiogenic shock include all of the following EXCEPT: A) altered mental status. B) cold, diaphoretic skin. C) constricted pupils. D) tachypnea.

Which of the following rhythms requires transcutaneous pacing? A) Supraventricular tachycardia B) Junctional tachycardia C) Sinus bradycardia D) Symptomatic third-degree AV block

A 64-year-old female is alert and oriented, in moderate respiratory distress, and complaining of chest pain. She describes an acute onset of right-sided chest pain that radiates across her chest. Physical examination reveals cold, diaphoretic skin; lung sounds with crackles bilaterally; JVD; and peripheral edema. Medical history includes hypertension, prior myocardial infarction, and heart failure. HR = 128, BP = 86/56, RR = 26, SaO₂ = 92%. Which of the following is appropriate in the prehospital treatment of this patient? A) Dopamine B) Nitroglycerin C) Amiodarone D) Morphine

Which of the following is affected by a properly working pacemaker? A) Automaticity B) Stroke volume C) Cardiac rhythm D) Ejection fraction

An ECG monitor is useful for: A) determining cardiac output. B) detecting the total electrical activity within the heart. C) determining stroke volume. D) evaluating the effectiveness of cardiac contractions.

The heart sound produced by the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves is: A) S4. B) S2. C) S3. D) S1.

The most common cause of death resulting from myocardial infarction is: A) end-organ failure. B) inadequate tissue perfusion. C) heart failure. D) dysrhythmia.

Which of the following most accurately describes a Valsalva maneuver? A) Firmly pressing the carotid artery against the transverse process of the vertebra behind it B) Asking the patient to bear down as if to move his bowels with his nose and mouth closed C) Digital rectal stimulation D) Immersing the face in cold water

Which of the following is the least likely cause of PEA? A) Hypertension B) Hypovolemia C) Cardiac tamponade D) Tension pneumothorax

Your patient is a 58-year-old female who is confused and dyspneic. Her daughter called EMS because the patient complained of a fluttering sensation in her chest, followed a few minutes later by chest pain and an acute onset of confusion. She is pale and diaphoretic without a palpable radial pulse. The monitor shows a narrow complex rhythm at a rate of 180. Which of the following is most appropriate? A) Valsalva maneuver B) IV adenosine C) Immediate synchronized cardioversion D) IV diltiazem

A junctional escape beat occurs when: A) the AV junction becomes irritable and temporarily overrides the SA node. B) there is a conduction block between the SA node and AV node. C) there is an accessory pathway that causes reentry of the impulse at the AV node. D) the rate of the SA node is slower than that of the AV node.

Release of acetylcholine at the neuroeffector junction would result in a(n): A) increase of both sympathetic and parasympathetic tone. B) positive dromotropic effect. C) negative chronotropic effect. D) positive inotropic effect.

Myocardial ischemia may result in: A) J waves. B) ST segment depression. C) QRS duration greater than 0.12 seconds. D) inverted P waves.

Auscultation of an S3 is associated with: A) mitral valve prolapse. B) increased force of atrial contraction. C) aortic stenosis. D) congestive heart failure.

Which of the following ECG findings is least anticipated in a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction? A) Osborn wave B) ST elevation C) ST depression D) QRS greater than 0.12 seconds

Excessive preload over time would lead to: A) decreased capacity of the left ventricle. B) strengthening of the left ventricle. C) increased ejection fraction of the left ventricle. D) weakening of the left ventricle.

The base of the heart lies at the level of the ________ rib. A) first B) third C) second D) fourth

Your patient is a 32-year-old female, 30 weeks' pregnant, complaining of shortness of breath and palpitations. She is alert and oriented, though anxious; her skin is cool and moist, and her radial pulse is weak and rapid, but regular. HR = 180, BP = 100/72, RR = 24. The monitor shows supraventricular tachycardia. After applying oxygen by nonrebreather and starting an IV of normal saline, which of the following is most appropriate? A) 150 mg of amiodarone B) Transport without further intervention C) 6 mg of adenosine D) 2 mg of Versed and cardioversion beginning at 50 joules

Which of the following occurs during depolarization of a cardiac cell? A) Sodium moves out of the cell. B) The cell becomes relatively more positively charged. C) Potassium moves into the cell. D) The cell becomes negatively charged.

Poiseuille's law specifically states that blood flow through a vessel is directly proportional to the ________ of the vessel's radius. A) fourth power B) third power C) square D) tenth power

Which of the following is least likely to be associated with the pain of acute myocardial infarction? A) Pain described as sharp B) Discomfort lasting longer than 30 minutes C) Radiation to arms and neck D) Pain reproducible with palpation

A 63-year-old male is alert and oriented, complaining of dizziness. He describes an acute onset of dizziness and near-syncope that has lasted for 15 minutes. He is also experiencing substernal chest pain radiating to his jaw, as well as nausea and weakness. Physical examination reveals cool, diaphoretic skin; delayed capillary refill; and mild crackles to the bases bilaterally. He has no significant medical history, but he takes 325 mg of aspirin a day. HR = 220, BP = 88/52, RR = 16, SaO₂ = 92%. Which of the following should be done first? A) Start an IV of normal saline B) Synchronized cardioversion C) Oxygen by nonrebreathing mask D) Administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin sublingually

Your patient in atrial fibrillation has a heart rate of 108 on the monitor, but her radial pulse is 88. The patient is experiencing: A) paradoxical pulse. B) pulsus obliterans. C) pulse deficit. D) pulsus alternans.

Paramedics use all of the following interventions to treat congestive heart failure EXCEPT: A) sitting the patient upright. B) decreasing patient anxiety. C) administering oxygen D) administering fluid bolus to treat hypotension.

A 48-year-old male is complaining of chest pain that he describes as dull, located substernally, but radiating to his neck. He rates the pain a 6 on a scale of 1 to 10 and complains of nausea and lightheadedness. His skin is cool and diaphoretic. HR = 96, BP = 124/82, RR = 14, SaO₂ = 97%. The 12-lead ECG is nondiagnostic. In addition to oxygen, an IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, and transport to the emergency department, which of the following would be most appropriate? A) Nitroglycerin, morphine, and furosemide B) Reassurance that likely his condition is not cardiac in nature C) Nitroglycerin D) Aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine

The amount of resistance that must be overcome by the left ventricle during systole is called: A) stroke volume. B) preload. C) cardiac output. D) afterload.

Signs and/or symptoms of a dissecting thoracic aneurysm include all of the following EXCEPT: A) hypotension. B) chest pain. C) palpable pulsating mass. D) difficulty breathing.

Your patient is a 73-year-old male who is sitting in a recliner, cyanotic, pulseless, and apneic. The patient's skin is cool and dry. The patient's wife last saw him an hour and a half ago. Which of the following should you do first? A) Check for rigor mortis. B) Start CPR. C) Attach the monitor/defibrillator. D) Inform the patient's wife that he is dead and nothing can be done for him.

The QRS complex represents: A) ventricular depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) atrial depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization.

Pharmacological interventions initiated by prehospital care providers in the treatment of congestive heart failure may include all of the following EXCEPT: A) dopamine. B) atropine. C) furosemide. D) nitroglycerin.

Stroke volume × heart rate × systemic vascular resistance = A) blood pressure. B) ejection fraction. C) cardiac output. D) end-diastolic pressure.

Cardioversion can be used to treat all of the following rhythms EXCEPT: A) ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. B) rapid atrial fibrillation. C) ventricular fibrillation. D) supraventricular tachycardia.

You have begun transcutaneous pacing of a 52-year-old male who is in third-degree heart block. He was initially unresponsive to all stimuli, with a pulse of 32, blood pressure 60 by palpation, and a respiratory rate of 12. Which of the following is least helpful when determining the effectiveness of transcutaneous pacing? A) Evidence of mechanical capture B) Increased level of consciousness C) Evidence of electrical capture D) Increased blood pressure

Claudication is significant because it: A) leads to glaucoma when left untreated. B) indicates the presence of atherosclerosis. C) results from inadequate coronary artery perfusion. D) results in inadequate cerebral perfusion.

Common chief complaints and symptoms associated with cardiac disease include all of the following EXCEPT: A) dyspnea. B) syncope. C) chest pain. D) vertigo.

The lead to the left of the sternum at the fourth intercostal space is: A) V₁. B) V₂. C) V₃. D) V₄.

An accelerated junctional rhythm has a rate between ________ and ________. A) 40, 60 B) 20, 40 C) 100, 150 D) 60, 100

Which of the following is most commonly associated with multifocal atrial tachycardia? A) Acute myocardial infarction B) Digitalis toxicity C) Pulmonary disease D) Use of cocaine, amphetamines, or caffeine

The mitral valve is also known as the ________ valve. A) pulmonic B) right atrioventricular C) left atrioventricular D) tricuspid

A decrease in preload results in a(n): A) decrease in afterload. B) decrease in cardiac output. C) increase in stroke volume. D) decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.

Your patient has a history of progressively worsening angina that comes on at rest. This most commonly indicates ________ angina. A) Prinzmetal's B) Ludwig's C) decubitus D) unstable angina

An early sign of hyperkalemia is: A) flat T waves on an ECG. B) widening of the QT interval. C) presence of an Osborn wave. D) tall, peaked T waves on an ECG.

The intrinsic firing rate of the AV node is ________ to ________ beats per minute. A) 40, 60 B) 20, 40 C) 60, 80 D) 80, 100

The predominant effect of a drug with primarily alpha properties would result in which of the following? A) Vasodilation B) Increased heart rate C) Decreased heart rate D) Vasoconstriction

Which of the following is the correct sequence of cardiac electrical activity? 1) AV node 2) Internodal pathways 3) Bundle of His 4) SA node 5) Purkinje fibers 6) Bundle branches A) 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5 B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 6, 5 C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6 D) 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5

A 12-lead ECG that reveals slight ST segment elevation; Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF; and ST elevation in V₁ and V₂ most indicate which of the following? A) The patient is experiencing myocardial ischemia in her inferior wall that is extending into the septum. B) The patient is experiencing myocardial injury in her lateral wall. C) The patient has had a myocardial infarction in her inferior wall and is experiencing ischemia extending into the right ventricle. D) The patient is experiencing ischemia and injury in her left ventricle and septum.

The pericardial cavity normally holds about ________ mL of ________. A) 30, blood B) 1 to 2, serous fluid C) 100, blood D) 25, straw-colored lubricant

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who is in moderate distress and complaining of chest pain. He states that he experienced an acute onset of left-sided crushing chest pain while playing basketball with his grandson. He complains of weakness and near-syncope with exertion. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. HR = 40, BP = 72/40, RR = 20, SaO₂ = 95%. The monitor shows a third-degree AV block. Which of the following is most appropriate? A) Sedation and transcutaneous pacing B) Atropine, 0.5 mg, up to 2.0 mg C) Dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min D) Aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine

Increased ________ does NOT occur due to increased venous return to the heart. A) myocardial stretch B) afterload C) stroke volume D) myocardial contraction

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when deciding to withhold resuscitative efforts? A) Documentation of the patient's wishes B) Patient's age C) The nature of injury D) Indications of the "down time"

Which of the following ECG findings would indicate a possible pacemaker failure? A) Occasional QRS complexes without pacer spikes B) A QRS duration of 0.20 seconds C) Pacemaker spikes without associated QRS complexes D) A pacemaker spike preceding each P wave

An elevation of the ST segment is associated with: A) hyperkalemia. B) left ventricular hypertrophy. C) slowed conduction through the AV node. D) myocardial injury.

The single largest killer of Americans each year is: A) coronary artery disease. B) suicide. C) stroke. D) congestive heart failure.

Which of the following has NOT been proven to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease? A) Smoking B) Age C) Hypercholesterolemia D) Obesity

The right atrioventricular valve is referred to as the ________ valve. A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) aortic D) pulmonary

The left atrioventricular valve is referred to as the ________ valve. A) tricuspid B) mitral C) aortic D) pulmonary

The right ventricle pushes blood to the lungs through the: A) pulmonary vein. B) pulmonary artery. C) pulmonary pathway. D) pulmonary vena cava.

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does ventricular filling begin? A) Systole B) Diastole C) Refractory D) Absolute refractory

The pressure in the ventricle at the end of diastole is called: A) afterload. B) Starling's law. C) stroke volume. D) preload.

Starling's law states that: A) the greater the contraction, the higher the afterload. B) the preload determines the cardiac output. C) the more the myocardial muscle is stretched, the greater the contraction. D) for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Cardiac output is: A) stroke volume × heart rate. B) stroke volume × diastolic pressure. C) heart rate × preload. D) afterload × preload.

Blood pressure is defined as: A) stroke volume × heart rate × SVR. B) stroke volume × diastolic pressure × SVE. C) heart rate × preload × SVR. D) afterload × preload × SVE.

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels are useful in determining: A) CAD. B) CVA. C) CHF. D) COPD.

Cardiac muscle is different from smooth muscle in the fact that it has: A) different nerve pathways. B) automaticity. C) peristalsis. D) There is no difference.

The intrinsic rate of the SA node is: A) set by the sympathetic nervous system. B) 15-40 bpm. C) 60-100 bpm. D) 40-60 bpm.

The intrinsic rate of the AV node is: A) set by the sympathetic nervous system. B) 15-40 bpm. C) 60-100 bpm. D) 40-60 bpm.

The intrinsic rate of the Purkinje system is: A) set by the sympathetic nervous system. B) 15-40 bpm. C) 60-100 bpm. D) 40-60 bpm.

On an ECG tracing, positive impulses are seen as: A) downward deflections. B) upward deflections. C) ST segment. D) J point.

On an ECG tracing, negative impulses are seen as: A) downward deflections. B) upward deflections. C) ST segment. D) J point.

You are evaluating your patient's ECG under fluorescent lights. You notice significant artifact due to: A) machine malfunction. B) 60 hertz interference. C) poor eyesight. D) road noise.

One small box on the ECG paper indicates: A) 0.20 seconds. B) 0.04 seconds. C) 2 seconds. D) 4 seconds.

One large box on the ECG paper indicates: A) 0.20 seconds. B) 0.04 seconds. C) 2 seconds. D) 4 seconds.

Atrial depolarization is represented on the ECG by the: A) P wave. B) ORS. C) T wave. D) J point.

Ventricular depolarization is represented on the ECG by the: A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) T wave. D) J point.

Ventricular repolarization is represented on the ECG by the: A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) T wave. D) J point.

Normal interval time for the PR interval is: A) 0.04-0.12 second. B) 0.33-0.42 second. C) 0.12-0.20 second. D) 1.20-2.00 seconds.

Normal interval time for the QRS complex is: A) 0.04-0.12 second. B) 0.33-0.42 second. C) 0.12-0.20 second. D) 1.20-2.00 seconds.

Normal interval time for the QT interval is: A) 0.04-0.12 second. B) 0.33-0.42 second. C) 0.12-0.20 second. D) 1.20-2.00 seconds.

The five-step procedure for analyzing ECGs includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) rate. B) P wave. C) QRS complex. D) V₁.

Treatment of sinus tachycardia is aimed at: A) adenosine. B) calcium channel blockers. C) beta blockers. D) treating the underlying cause.

You are transporting a patient who is having wild changes in his heart rate, an irregular R-R interval, and a history of taking Lanoxin. The patient is now becoming pale, cool, and clammy, with an MAP of 60. You should: A) not worry, as this is a normal presentation. B) begin TCP and consider a catecholamine infusion. C) infuse a calcium channel blocker. D) start an amiodarone drip.

A potassium level of 3.0 would commonly be associated with which ECG finding? A) T wave merging with QRS B) Delta wave C) U wave D) Flattening T wave

A potassium level of 8.0 would commonly be associated with which ECG finding? A) T wave merging with QRS B) Delta wave C) U wave D) Flattening T wave

Diaphoresis exhibited in a patient actively having an MI is due to: A) sympathetic response. B) parasympathetic response. C) increased metabolism. D) increased myocardial demand.

A parasympatholytic agent used to treat symptomatic bradycardia is: A) Atrovent. B) atropine. C) epinephrine. D) Levophed.

The loading dose of norepinephrine is: A) 2-4 mcg/min. B) 2-4 mg/ min. C) 8-10 mcg/min. D) 8-10 mg/min.

Myocardial ischemia is caused by an imbalance of: A) oxygen supply and demand. B) oxygen bioavailability. C) free radical oxygen. D) sodium bicarbonate.

Vasospasms associated with chest pain are known as: A) stable angina. B) Prinzmetal's angina. C) variant angina. D) James' angina.

A patient with known arteriosclerosis was outside doing lawn work when he started experiencing chest pain. Upon your arrival, the patient states that he has been resting and took a prescribed nitroglycerin tablet 5 minutes ago. The patient states that the pain is subsiding. You suspect: A) unstable angina. B) stable angina. C) Prinzmetal's angina. D) myocardial infarction.

Life-threatening arrhythmias can result in death of the AMI patient as soon as: A) 3 hours after onset. B) 4 hours after onset. C) 2 hours after onset. D) 1 hour after onset.

A pathological Q wave indicating infarction should measure: A) 0.004 second. B) 0.12 second. C) 0.32 second. D) 0.04 second.

The maximum window of time a fibrinolytic can be administered is: A) 8 hours after onset of symptoms. B) 12 hours after onset of symptoms. C) 24 hours after onset of symptoms. D) 6 hours after onset of symptoms.

Sudden death is described as: A) any death without a direct known cause. B) any death occurring within 1 hour of onset of symptoms. C) any death occurring within 3 hours of onset of symptoms. D) All death is sudden death.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of cardiac arrest? A) Electrical phase B) Circulatory phase C) Rigor mortis phase D) Metabolic phase

You are transporting a cardiac arrest when you achieve ROSC. You now want to keep the patient's systolic blood pressure in the range of: A) 120-130 mmHg. B) 60-70 mmHg. C) 80-100 mmHg. D) 20-40 mmHg.

You have been on the scene of a 55-year-old cardiac arrest patient for 30 minutes. You have full ALS care initiated, with no response to therapy. You should: A) consider termination of the arrest. B) transport immediately. C) keep working until you get a change. D) consider defibrillating at 360 joules.

You run a 12-lead ECG on a patient exhibiting chest pain. It reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal in leads aVL and I. You suspect: A) anterior MI. B) lateral MI. C) inferior MI. D) high lateral wall MI.

You are called for a patient experiencing SOB. The patient is also a diabetic, so you perform a 12-lead ECG. It shows ST segment elevation in leads V₁, V₂, V₃, and V₄ with reciprocal changes in leads V₅, V₆, II, III, and aVF. You suspect: A) septal-anterior MI. B) inferoseptal MI. C) lateral MI. D) inferior MI.