Question 1

Which of the following accounts for the highest number of trauma deaths in the United States of America?
A) Motor vehicle crashes
B) Falls
C) Assaults
D) Firearms injuries

Accepted Answer

According to data from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), motor vehicle crashes account for the highest number of trauma deaths in the United States, followed by firearms injuries, falls, and then assaults.

Question 2

Modern medicine treats trauma as a:
A) crisis.
B) disease.
C) life threat.
D) medical problem.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an example of trauma?
A) An abrasion to the knee
B) Chest pain
C) Cerebral contusion
D) A stab wound to the abdomen

Accepted Answer

Chest pain is not an example of trauma in the context of physical injuries like the other options. It is a symptom that can be caused by various conditions, not necessarily a direct physical injury.

Question 4

In addition to handling all types of specialty trauma, which level of trauma center provides continuing medical and public education programs?
A) IV
B) III
C) I
D) II

Accepted Answer

Level I trauma centers not only handle all types of specialty trauma, but also have a responsibility to provide continuing medical and public education programs.

Question 5

The purpose of determining the mechanism of injury and the index of suspicion for the trauma patient at the same time is to allow you to:
A) decide whether to transport the patient.
B) identify comorbid factors.
C) document a complete scene size-up.
D) anticipate your patient's injuries.

Accepted Answer

Determining the mechanism of injury and the index of suspicion allows you to anticipate your patient's injuries, which is essential for providing appropriate care and transportation decisions. This information helps you prioritize treatment and consider potential injuries that may not yet be visibly apparent. Identifying comorbid factors and documenting a complete scene size-up are also important, but they are not the primary purposes of determining the mechanism of injury and the index of suspicion.

Question 6

Which of the following trauma patients would be classified as "stable"?
A) Patient with facial burns and associated hoarseness and stridor
B) Patient who is unconscious, with no ventilations and no pulse
C) Patient with controlled bleeding from a laceration to the right forearm from a glass cut
D) Patient with closed, bilateral femur fractures but adequate ventilations

Accepted Answer

The patient with controlled bleeding from a laceration to the right forearm from a glass cut is classified as stable as bleeding is controlled and not life-threatening. The patient with facial burns and associated hoarseness and stridor is classified as unstable due to potential airway compromise. The patient who is unconscious with no ventilations and no pulse is classified as unstable and in cardiac arrest. The patient with closed bilateral femur fractures but adequate ventilations is classified as potentially unstable and requires further evaluation.

Question 7

As a paramedic, your role in trauma care consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) providing rapid transport to appropriate facilities.
B) promoting injury prevention.
C) providing care to seriously injured trauma patients.
D) providing surgical interventions to stop hemorrhage.

Accepted Answer

Paramedics do not perform surgical interventions to stop hemorrhage. This is typically done in the hospital setting by trauma surgeons. The other choices are all within the scope of a paramedic's role in trauma care.

Question 8

Trauma triage criteria application, field skill performance, response times, patient assessment, patient care and transport are all monitored through which of the following?
A) Quality improvement
B) Trauma registry
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
D) Public healthcare model

Accepted Answer

Quality improvement programs typically monitor and evaluate the various aspects of trauma care, including trauma triage criteria application, field skill performance, response times, patient assessment, patient care, and transport. They aim to maximize the effectiveness and efficiency of trauma care while minimizing the potential for errors and adverse outcomes. Trauma registries may also play a role in tracking and analyzing trauma care outcomes, but they focus more on collecting and reporting data rather than actively improving the quality of care. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and public healthcare models may inform trauma care policies and guidelines, but they do not directly monitor or evaluate individual aspects of trauma care.

Question 9

The leading cause of death in people under age 44 is:
A) heart attack.
B) trauma.
C) cancer.
D) cardiovascular disease.

Accepted Answer

Trauma, which includes injuries from accidents or violence, is the leading cause of death in people under age 44. Heart attack and cardiovascular disease are more common in older age groups, while cancer can affect individuals of all ages but is not the leading cause of death in this age group.

Question 10

Which of the following is the best, most cost-effective way for EMS personnel to help reduce trauma-related morbidity and mortality?
A) Participate in injury prevention programs.
B) Keep up to date on trauma management knowledge and skills.
C) Transport all trauma patients to a trauma center.
D) Provide complete patient care reports so that accurate data can be entered into the trauma registry.

Accepted Answer

Participating in injury prevention programs is the most effective and cost-effective way for EMS personnel to help reduce trauma-related morbidity and mortality. By identifying and addressing potential risks and hazards in the community, EMS personnel can help prevent traumatic injuries before they occur. This approach is more proactive and preventive than simply transporting patients to a trauma center or providing patient care reports, which are reactive measures after the injury has already occurred. While keeping up to date on trauma management knowledge and skills is important for providing high-quality care to trauma patients, it alone does not address the root causes of traumatic injuries.

Question 11

Which of the following is the best definition of the Golden Period?
A) The ideal time it takes to assess a multi-system trauma patient
B) The ideal timeframe from time of injury until surgery
C) The ideal time from requesting a helicopter to it landing on scene
D) The ideal timeframe from call dispatch to arrival on scene

Accepted Answer

The Golden Period refers to the time from when a traumatic injury occurs until the patient receives definitive care (usually surgery), and the ideal timeframe is considered to be within the first hour of injury. Option A is referring to the assessment phase, which may occur within the Golden Period but is not the definition of it. Options C and D are specific to helicopter transport and EMS response, respectively, but are not related to the concept of the Golden Period.

Question 12

Which of the following requires immediate transport to a trauma center?
A) A 40-year-old who fell 12 feet from a garage roof with a radius fracture
B) A 36-year-old woman in a motor vehicle crash who has a blood pressure of 100/60
C) A 22-year-old soccer player with lower leg pain
D) A 47-year-old involved in a motor vehicle crash that resulted in the death of his passenger

Accepted Answer

A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash with a fatality is at high risk for serious injuries and requires immediate transport to a trauma center for evaluation and treatment.

Question 13

Which of the following physical findings indicates the need for immediate transport?
A) Vital signs: systolic blood pressure 80, respiratory rate 8
B) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
C) Second-degree burns involving 9 percent of total body surface area in an adult patient
D) Fractured right femur

Accepted Answer

A systolic blood pressure of 80 and a respiratory rate of 8 indicate severe hypotension and respiratory failure, which require immediate transport to a hospital for further evaluation and treatment. The patient is likely in a state of shock and requires urgent medical attention. The other options, while still potentially serious, do not require immediate transport based on the information provided.

Question 14

Which of the following statements about trauma is FALSE?
A) Life-threatening injuries may exist with little external evidence.
B) Dramatic-appearing extremity injuries draw the paramedic's focus away from life-threatening injuries.
C) Life-threatening injury occurs in less than 10 percent of trauma patients.
D) Most patients with life-threatening trauma will have sustained external injury to the extremities (arms/legs).

Accepted Answer

Most life-threatening injuries involve critical areas such as the head, chest, abdomen, and pelvis rather than the extremities. While extremity injuries can be severe and visually dramatic, they are less likely to be immediately life-threatening compared to injuries in the aforementioned critical areas.

Question 15

A trauma center that has surgical care capability available at all times and can handle all but the most seriously injured specialty and multisystem trauma patients is a Level ________ trauma center.
A) III
B) I
C) IV
D) II

Accepted Answer

A Level II trauma center has the capability to provide comprehensive trauma care and can handle the majority of injured patients, including those requiring specialty surgical care, but may not have the same research and residency programs as a Level I center.

Question 16

Which level of trauma facility has minimal surgical support but can stabilize before transferring to a higher-level trauma facility?
A) III
B) II
C) IV
D) I

Accepted Answer

Level III trauma facilities have minimal surgical support and are able to stabilize a patient before transferring them to a higher-level trauma facility. Level II, IV, and I trauma facilities have varying levels of surgical support and capabilities.

Question 17

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for air medical transport?
A) Combative trauma patient
B) Seriously injured patient with cardiac tamponade
C) Patient with prolonged extrication time
D) Burn patient with over 50 percent second-degree burns

Accepted Answer

A combative trauma patient poses a risk to the safety of the crew and the aircraft and is not a suitable candidate for air medical transport.

Question 18

Which of the following acts resulted in the development of modern EMS systems?
A) Ryan White Act
B) Highway Safety Act of 1966
C) Good Samaritan Act
D) The Trauma Care Systems Planning and Development Act of 1990

Accepted Answer

The Highway Safety Act of 1966 established the Department of Transportation and led to the development of modern EMS systems in the United States.

Question 19

Upon arriving on a scene where the mechanism of injury indicates a potentially life-threatening injury, you should employ which of the following interventions to best help deliver the care that is needed?
A) Reevaluate the scene size-up.
B) Initiate transport immediately, delaying more extensive care until you are en route.
C) Ask a surgeon to respond to the scene.
D) Call immediately for air medical transport to reduce the "Golden Period."

Accepted Answer

Initiating transport immediately allows for the patient to receive more comprehensive care at a medical facility, which is crucial in potentially life-threatening situations.

Question 20

Establishment of educational programs and improved auto technology are examples of which part of the public health model?
A) Surveillance
B) Risk identification
C) Intervention
D) Implementation

Accepted Answer

Educational programs and improved auto technology are examples of interventions, which are actions taken to prevent, treat, or mitigate health issues.

Quiz 1: Trauma and Trauma Systems

Which of the following accounts for the highest number of trauma deaths in the United States of America?

Modern medicine treats trauma as a:

Which of the following is NOT an example of trauma?

In addition to handling all types of specialty trauma, which level of trauma center provides continuing medical and public education programs?

The purpose of determining the mechanism of injury and the index of suspicion for the trauma patient at the same time is to allow you to:

Which of the following trauma patients would be classified as "stable"?

As a paramedic, your role in trauma care consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Trauma triage criteria application, field skill performance, response times, patient assessment, patient care and transport are all monitored through which of the following?

The leading cause of death in people under age 44 is:

Which of the following is the best, most cost-effective way for EMS personnel to help reduce trauma-related morbidity and mortality?

Which of the following is the best definition of the Golden Period?

Which of the following requires immediate transport to a trauma center?

Which of the following physical findings indicates the need for immediate transport?

Which of the following statements about trauma is FALSE?

A trauma center that has surgical care capability available at all times and can handle all but the most seriously injured specialty and multisystem trauma patients is a Level ________ trauma center.

Which level of trauma facility has minimal surgical support but can stabilize before transferring to a higher-level trauma facility?

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for air medical transport?

Which of the following acts resulted in the development of modern EMS systems?

Upon arriving on a scene where the mechanism of injury indicates a potentially life-threatening injury, you should employ which of the following interventions to best help deliver the care that is needed?

Establishment of educational programs and improved auto technology are examples of which part of the public health model?