Are conditioned taste aversions in any way exceptions of sorts to the general principles of classical conditioning? If so,how?
A) No, it is not an exception - it is simply another illustration of the generality of the principles of classical conditioning.
B) Yes, it is an exception - conditioned taste aversions require more trials to acquire than do most CRs.
C) Yes, it is an exception - conditioned taste aversions require a shorter interval between the CS and the response for their acquisition than do most CRs.
D) Yes, it is an exception - conditioned taste aversions often require only a single CS-UCS pairing, rather than several pairings, for their acquisition.
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