Assume that you had data for a cross-section of 100 households with data on consumption and personal disposable income. If you fit a linear regression function regressing consumption on disposable income, what prior expectations do you have about the slope and the intercept? The slope of this regression function is called the "marginal propensity to consume." If, instead, you fit a log-log model, then what is the interpretation of the slope? Do you have any prior expectation about its size?
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