Firm A can borrow at 4% fixed or in the floating-rate market at Libor flat. Firm B can borrow at 7% fixed or at Libor bps. A wants to borrow floating and B fixed. Suppose that to reduce financing costs, A borrows fixed, B borrows floating, and they enter into an interest-rate swap. Which of the following statements is valid?
A) The combined improvement in cost of financing to A and B with the swap is always equal to the difference between the fixed rate differential (between A and B) and the floating rate differential which in this case is 200 basis points.
B) The combined improvement in cost of financing to A and B with the swap is always equal to the floating rate differential, which in this case is 100 basis points.
C) The combined improvement in cost of financing to A and B with the swap depends on the negotiated fixed rate on the swap between the two counterparties.
D) No improvement in combined financing costs is possible-what one party gains in financing costs, the other party loses.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q6: The main difference between the "short-form" and
Q7: Choose the most appropriate of the following
Q8: An amortizing interest-rate swap is one in
Q9: You enter into a $100 million notional
Q10: In a plain vanilla fixed-for-floating swap,
A) Fixed
Q12: The UK money-market day-count convention is
A) Actual/365.
B)
Q13: Firm A can borrow at 4% fixed
Q14: Your firm can borrow fixed at 8%
Q15: You enter into a $100 million notional
Q16: Which of the following is not an
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