Which of the following best explains why the ratios of A/T and G/C are 0.77 and 1.08, respectively in bacteriophage $\varPhi$X174?
A)the base pairing in bacteriophages is not always A-T and C-G
B)studies done with most bacteriophages do not use complete genomic DNA due to the inherent instability of phage DNA
C)bacteriophage DNA often uses bases other than A, T, C and G
D)many viruses often use single stranded DNA
E)none of the above

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The ratios of A/T and G/C being 0.77 and 1.08, respectively, can be explained by the fact that many viruses, including bacteriophage φX174, use single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). In ssDNA, the ratios of A to T and G to C do not necessarily reflect a 1:1 relationship because the base pairing rules of double-stranded DNA do not apply.

Which of the Following Best Explains Why the Ratios of A/T