Which of the Following Is True If a Bailment Is

Which of the following is true if a bailment is intended to benefit only the bailor?

A) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property arising out of either the bailee's ordinary or gross negligence.
B) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property arising only out of the bailee's gross negligence only.
C) The bailee is liable for harm to the bailed property caused by even the slightest lack of due care on the part of the bailee.
D) The bailee is strictly liable for harm to the bailed property.
E) The bailee is not liable for harm to the bailed property because of the doctrine of assumption of the risk.