Which of the following is correct with regard to the doctrine of respondeat superior?
A)It is a form of liability without fault.
B)It ordinarily holds an employer liable for the acts of both employees and independent contractors.
C)The liability of the principal under the doctrine is vicarious and depends upon proof of wrongdoing by the employee within the scope of employment.
D)Two of the above, (a) and (c), are correct.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The doctrine of respondeat superior is a form of strict liability without fault, meaning that the employer can be held liable for the acts of their employees or independent contractors even if they themselves were not directly involved in the wrongdoing. However, this liability is vicarious and depends on proof that the employee was acting within the scope of their employment. Therefore, both options A and C are correct.

Which of the Following Is Correct with Regard to the Doctrine