Given a binomial variable with n = 40 and the probability of a success on any given trial of 0.8,the mean of the probability distribution would be 0.4.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The mean of a binomial distribution is calculated as $n \times p$, where $n$ is the number of trials and $p$ is the probability of success. Therefore, for $n = 40$ and $p = 0.8$, the mean would be $40 \times 0.8 = 32$, not 0.4.

Given a Binomial Variable with N = 40 and the Probability