A 32-year-old client who has a history of familial polyposis but no manifestations still wants to explore the possibility of preventive surgery. The most appropriate response the nurse can make is
A) "Cancer is not always hereditary, and you should change risk factors in your life."
B) "It is an overreaction to seek radical treatment before you develop symptoms."
C) "Monthly rectal smears may allay your anxiety without surgery."
D) "Subtotal colectomy is a procedure you might seek further information about."

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Clients with familial polyposis have a 50% risk of developing colon cancer by age 40. By age 70, all clients with this inherited trait have developed colon cancer. Clients with ulcerative colitis also have an increased risk for colon cancer. Prophylactic subtotal colectomies may be indicated for this group of clients.

A 32-Year-Old Client Who Has a History of Familial Polyposis