Which of the following is correct with regard to the doctrine of respondeat superior?
A)It is a form of liability without fault.
B)It holds an employer liable for the acts of both employees and independent contractors.
C)The liability of the principal under the doctrine is vicarious and depends upon proof of wrongdoing by the employee within the course of his employment.
D)Two of the above, (a) and (c), are correct.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Option A is correct because respondeat superior is a type of strict liability that holds the employer responsible for the actions of their employees, even if the employer didn't personally commit any fault. 
Option C is also correct because it is necessary to establish that the employee acted within the scope of his employment and committed a wrongful act in order to hold the employer liable under respondeat superior. 
Option B is incorrect because while respondeat superior holds employers responsible for the acts of their employees, it generally does not apply to independent contractors, who are not considered employees.

Which of the Following Is Correct with Regard to the Doctrine