Why Does Vitebsky Argue That the Word "Shamanism"may Not Be

Why does Vitebsky argue that the word "shamanism"may not be an accurate term?

A) The term "shaman" is only used by the people in about half the religions referred to as "shamanism."
B) Neo-shamanism of today has changed people's ideas of traditional shamanism.
C) "-ism" carries a connotation of formality used when describing "western" religions which may be inappropriate for more fluid and flexible religions.
D) The term was derived from a tribe in Amazonia which has few similarities to other peoples around the world.