A 78-year-old man is going to be discharged today after having abdominal surgery several days ago.The nurse notices that the patient has a temperature of 101.5° F and has some tan secretions in his suture area. A specimen is sent to the laboratory.The results show the presence of gram-positive cocci.The statement that might explain this condition is which of the following?
A) The antibiotic was ineffective.
B) The patient was not compliant with therapy.
C) It is normal to have secretions at the suture site.
D) A health care-associated infection should be considered.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

No antibiotic was mentioned in the scenario.There is no history of the patient receiving any medication for this problem,so compliance is not an issue with this situation.It is not normal to have secretions at a suture site.

A 78-Year-Old Man Is Going to Be Discharged Today After