A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian?
A) a gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
B) a gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
C) a gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
D) a gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
E) a gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Mendelian inheritance involves genes that are transmitted according to Mendel's laws, which include the segregation and independent assortment of alleles. Option D describes a pattern consistent with Mendelian inheritance, where genes are passed from parents to offspring through predictable patterns, such as autosomal or sex-linked inheritance.

A Gene Is Considered to Be Non-Mendelian in Its Inheritance