Suppose you analyze a particular deal and it appears that for an investment of $1,000,000 your client can obtain a positive NPV of over $500,000. Your client is typical of the type of high tax bracket individual investors who commonly purchase and sell this type of property, and indeed typically determine equilibrium prices in the asset market in which these properties are sold. What should you do?
A) Reject the deal out of hand because it costs twice as much as its NPV.
B) Phone your client right away on your cell phone and urge her to pounce on this deal before it "gets away" - the seller must have made a mistake in their offering price!
C) Buy the property with cash, take out an 80% loan-to-value ratio mortgage, and laugh all the way to the bank with $200,000 of arbitrage profits!
D) Sharpen your pencil, double-check your assumptions and analysis, try to find what is unique about your client.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1: A seller has offered you a $1,000,000
Q2: Which of the following is true about
Q3: All of the following are true about
Q4: The NOI is $40,000; there are $5,000
Q5: Which statement is true ex ante?
A) Leverage
Q7: The table below shows two 10-year
Q8: You are trying to apply a multi-year
Q9: Normally, what relation should be most common
Q10: Assuming riskless debt, if the return risk
Q11: After-tax cash flow will exceed before-tax cash
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