If $f(x)$ is as shown in the first graph, could the function in the second graph represent the total area (i.e., not necessarily the definite integral)between f(x)and the x-axis from 0 to a?

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The Answer of If $f(x)$ is as shown in the first graph, could the function in the second graph represent the total area (i.e., not necessarily the definite integral)between f(x)and the x-axis from 0 to a?

If f(x)f(x)f(x) Is as Shown in the First Graph, Could the Function

If $f(x)$ Is as Shown in the First Graph, Could the Function