Suppose a curve C is parameterized by $\vec { r } ( t )$ with $a \leq t \leq b$ and suppose $\vec { F }$ is a vector field $\vec{F}(t)=\vec{r}(t) \times \vec{r}^{\prime}(t)$ for $a \leq t \leq b$ .Explain why $\int _ { C } \vec { F } \cdot d \vec { r } = 0$

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The Answer of Suppose a curve C is parameterized by $\vec { r } ( t )$ with $a \leq t \leq b$ and suppose $\vec { F }$ is a vector field $\vec{F}(t)=\vec{r}(t) \times \vec{r}^{\prime}(t)$ for $a \leq t \leq b$ .Explain why $\int _ { C } \vec { F } \cdot d \vec { r } = 0$

Suppose a Curve C Is Parameterized By r⃗(t)\vec { r } ( t )r(t)

Suppose a Curve C Is Parameterized By $\vec { r } ( t )$