In a normal distribution, why isn't the percentage of scores between 0 and 1 SD above the mean the same as the percentage of scores between 1 and 2 SDs above the mean?
A) As you move away from the mean, the scores occur progressively less frequently.
B) As you move away from the mean, the scores occur progressively more frequently.
C) The scores are more spread out as you move away from the mean.
D) The scores are less spread out as you move away from the mean.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

As you move away from the mean in a normal distribution, the frequency of scores decreases, meaning fewer scores fall between 1 and 2 standard deviations above the mean compared to between 0 and 1 standard deviation above the mean.

In a Normal Distribution, Why Isn't the Percentage of Scores