As many as 60% of people in malaria-infected regions of Africa have the sickle-cell allele,but only about 10% of the U.S.population of African ancestry carries the allele.Malaria remains a major disease in central Africa but has not been a serious problem in the U.S.for many generations.What is/are the reason(s) for the difference in the percentages and what is a reasonable statement about future percentages?
A) The presence of malaria in Africa maintains the advantage of the heterozygous sickle-cell trait,and the prevalence of malaria will likely continue to preserve the 60% rate.
B) The U.S.percentage may have always been somewhat lower due to immigration from nonmalaria regions,but changes in sites and rates of immigration could occur.
C) Lack of widespread malaria in the United States would have resulted in both homozygous and heterozygous carriers of sickle cell undergoing several generations of negative selection.We should expect this to continue unless innovative therapies give all individuals an equal chance of surviving and reproducing.
D) All of the choices are reasonable.
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