A 27-year-old male is admitted to a neurologic unit with a complete C-5 spinal cord transection.On initial assessment, he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and hyperventilating.He appears to be going into shock.The most likely mechanism of his shock is:
A) hypovolemia caused by blood loss.
B) hypovolemia caused by evaporative fluid losses.
C) vasodilation caused by gram-negative bacterial infection.
D) vasodilation caused by a decrease in sympathetic stimulation.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The patient is likely experiencing neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, which leads to a loss of sympathetic tone and resultant vasodilation.

A 27-Year-Old Male Is Admitted to a Neurologic Unit with a Complete