Why might one argue that inductive reasoning is less susceptible to bias than deductive reasoning is?
A) Inductive reasoning begins with a general theory rather than specific observations.
B) In inductive reasoning, the observations that would refute the theory are specified in advance.
C) Inductive reasoning begins with objective observations rather than a theory in the reasoner's mind.
D) Inductive reasoning is essentially the opposite of the sort of deductive reasoning that philosophers used.
Correct Answer:
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