Deck 15: Assessment,Careers,and Business

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Question
OSS candidates were formally and informally assessed at the OSS assessment and training facility over the course of a total of ____.

A) 3 days
B) 5 days
C) one week
D) 10 days
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Question
Once at the OSS training and assessment facility,the candidates

A) were interviewed by psychologists, completed questionnaires, and sat for paper-and-pencil tests.
B) had their performance evaluated on a highly stressful, but mock interrogation.
C) were challenged to build a small wooden structure using "assistants" who deliberately frustrated the candidates' efforts.
D) All of these
Question
According to Mark

A) is tied to its compelling demonstration of the utility of psychological testing and assessment.
B) lives on in the modern day use of assessment centers for personnel selection in corporate America.
C) is very much a part of assessment centers conducted by today's governmental agencies.
D) All of these
F) Lenzenweger, the legacy of the OSS assessment program
Question
A number of factors conspired to make the task of the OSS one of the most complicated behavioral prediction challenges ever encountered in the history clinical psychology.These factors included

A) identifying psychological attributes that corresponded to OSS duties.
B) the novelty of the OSS function.
C) the variability of job requirements for OSS intelligence agents to be recruited.
D) All of these
Question
According to Mark

A) "junior varsity."
B) "recently licensed."
C) "all over the map."
D) "all-star."
F) Lenzenweger, the team of psychologists that was assembled to create the novel assessment program for personnel selection for the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) could be characterized as
Question
While at the OSS assessment and training facility,the candidates

A) were not allowed to verbally interact with each other.
B) were encouraged to view Survivor re-runs on VHS.
C) would inevitably have a physical altercation with either "Buster" or "Kippy."
D) None of these
Question
As an alternative to analyzing OSS jobs into their component psychological attributes,the OSS Assessment Staff set what they characterized as ______ assessment as their objective.

A) orgasmic
B) organismic
C) orthogonal
D) None of these
Question
According to Mark

A) James "Big Jim" Thornton.
B) Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
C) Samuel "Secret Sammy" Sanders.
D) William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
F) Lenzenweger, one of the major turning points in the history of psychological assessment came as the result of the forward-thinking action of a U.S. Army General named
Question
OSS assessment and training was conducted at a location that was code-named _____,but was informally referred to as ____.

A) the homestead; the farm
B) Farm 44; the station
C) Station S; the farm
D) Dulles; the airport
Question
Candidates for OSS training arrived at the OSS instructional facility for assessment and training from

A) their homes throughout the United States.
B) specially designated hotels in Roanoke, Virginia where they had been instructed to assemble.
C) United States military bases.
D) All of these
Question
Ultimately,psychologists evaluated OSS candidates on the basis of data derived from

A) the full range of assessments, considered as a whole.
B) a series of individual tests, each measuring a required ability.
C) a single test with scales for each of the required abilities.
D) a complex weighting of case history data and cognitive/behavioral tasks.
Question
Candidates for the OSS would have to be all of the following EXCEPT

A) resourceful.
B) contemplative.
C) emotionally resilient.
D) creative.
Question
According to Mark

A) the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B) the US Army Special Forces.
C) both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
D) None of these.
F) Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) is viewed today as the forerunner to
Question
According to MarkAccording to Mark F.Lenzenweger,the Office of Strategic Services (OSS)is viewed today as the forerunner to

A)the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B)the US Army Special Forces.
C)both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)and the US Army Special Forces.
D)None of these.
Question
The final decision regarding the status of an OSS was made by

A) senior OSS staff officials.
B) psychologists on-site at the training and assessment facility.
C) senior Department of the Army officials.
D) Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
Question
Identifying candidates for OSS positions represented a "real-world" problem that would ultimately be addressed by means of

A) a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
B) a highly incentivized recruiting program.
C) an imaginative but cost-effective advertising program.
D) All of these
Question
All of the following were objectives of America's first intelligence service EXCEPT

A) gathering information about the intentions and activities of this country's adversaries.
B) executing operations aimed at disrupting foreign enemy actions.
C) identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United States.
D) sabotaging foreign enemy assets.
Question
The model of assessment and personnel selection devised by OSS personnel was

A) generally consistent with the then-current practices.
B) unreliable as a result of then-existing time pressures.
C) revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
D) has remained classified to the present day.
Question
The OSS assessments resulted in mounds of notes and other data about the candidates' suitability for intelligence work.All of this information was

A) analyzed in triple-blind fashion by a panel of three psychologists.
B) sent to OSS headquarters in Washington,
C) reviewed and debated at a staff conference.
D) All of these
D)C. for a preliminary recommendation.
Question
The varied responsibilities of the OSS raised many questions for the OSS team of assessor psychologists.According to Mark

A) "What defines 'usefulness to the organization'?"
B) "What psychological attributes can we reasonably assess in the space of a relatively short visit to the assessment facility?"
C) "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied demands required of OSS intelligence officers?"
D) "What specific aspects of personality should be the focus of our assessments?"
F) Lenzenweger, the "bottom line" question for the assessors could BEST be phrased as,
Question
Computer simulations and video games have earned a place as a tool of vocational assessment-so much so,that they are sometimes even referred to as

A) portfolio evaluations.
B) performance tests.
C) online interviews.
D) cyberselection tools.
Question
According to Dr.Jed Yalof,in the workplace,the problems of one individual,such as chronic lateness or chronic moodiness,are likely to negatively impact the focus and productivity of

A) that individual.
B) other workers.
C) both that individual and other workers.
D) all workers in that industry.
Question
The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)

A) is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists.
B) was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
C) taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
D) Both is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists and was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
Question
The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal criteria is referred to as

A) classification.
B) directed search.
C) screening.
D) interviewing.
Question
Vocational assessment that entails performance samples

A) may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
B) generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks.
C) have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving and decision making.
D) are used extensively in the hiring of valets.
Question
Race-norming entails

A) including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test.
B) adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
C) Both including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test and adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
D) None of these
Question
When hiring new personnel,the term that BEST describes the process by which applicants are accepted or rejected is

A) selection.
B) placement.
C) classification.
D) directed search.
Question
Performance assessments

A) provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths and weaknesses.
B) involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
C) provide a job-related sample of behavior.
D) are usually not standardized.
Question
In the evaluation of worker productivity

A) final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future worker production and job tenure.
B) peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
C) peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors.
D) the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors.
Question
Although not identified as such at the time of hire,there are employees who turn out to be "poor-fits" for their job or work place.According to Dr.Jed Yalof,such individuals may

A) have been easily screened out by basic self-report measures and never hired.
B) be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they got the job.
C) have served time in prison for forging work credentials in the past.
D) All of these
Question
A "real time,live action" approach to assessment that requires assessees to demonstrate abilities that typically are characteristic of those they might encounter on-the-job is referred to as:

A) portfolio assessment.
B) performance assessment.
C) curriculum-based assessment.
D) authentic assessment.
Question
In the context of business settings,which of the following BEST exemplifies a process related to validity generalization?

A) validating a projective personality technique for use in determining leadership ability and integrity
B) selecting standardized instruments that include validity scales for use in recruiting new trainees for a local police department
C) determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial work can be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver
D) creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate actual job requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers
Question
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in pre-employment screening of job applicants for unskilled positions in a large corporation?

A) application blanks
B) letters of recommendation
C) interviews
D) aptitude measures
Question
Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?

A) It can yield insights into how employees or prospective employees think about work-related things.
B) The prospective employer can view samples of the applicant's work product.
C) It potentially allows the employer entry into a side of the employee's world that would otherwise be private.
D) Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed areas carries with it federal tax benefits.
Question
Which of the following does NOT belong?

A) an "in-basket" task
B) a computerized jet fighter simulation
C) a word processing test
D) a polygraph test
Question
The image in Chapter 15 of your textbook of Steve Martin as a dentist in Little Shop of Horrors was used to illustrate a point about occupational choice and

A) burnout.
B) interests.
C) productivity.
D) workplace drug testing.
Question
Application forms used in employment settings

A) are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
B) have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies.
C) are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
D) Both have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies and are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
Question
The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual's level of performance within a racial group is referred to as

A) racial bias.
B) discrimination.
C) race-norming.
D) intercept bias.
Question
Letters of recommendation used in employment settings

A) are generally not very useful since they are all typically favorable.
B) are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
C) have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee selection.
D) are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured.
Question
According to Dr.Jed Yalof,potential problems may arise with employees who misrepresented their credentials to gain employment.These employees may

A) try to bend the rules of the workplace.
B) down-play or disregard supervisory feedback.
C) be inappropriately competitive with co-workers.
D) All of these
Question
Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)tends to be low,probably because of

A) the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
B) the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
C) a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
D) scoring that is based in part on the race of the test-taker.
Question
Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB)was viewed as appropriate by the National Academy of Sciences because

A) the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and Caucasians is represented by different regression lines.
B) the various groups for which data exists are being held to the same standards.
C) African-Americans are more likely than Caucasians to come from disadvantaged backgrounds, and race-norming the test compensates to some degree for that disadvantage.
D) so few minority group members take the test that the net effect of the race-norming would not yield the desired consequence.
Question
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the Strong Interest Inventory as the use of this test relates to respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds?

A) The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds.
B) The evidence does NOT support the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds.
C) The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds has only begun to be investigated and no findings have yet been reported.
D) The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds is moot as the test publisher has made highly specific recommendations regarding which testtakers from which cultures the test is appropriate for use with.
Question
The Strong Interest Inventory measures

A) vocational aptitudes.
B) vocational interests.
C) vocational interests and aptitudes.
D) vocational interests and general mental ability.
Question
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery

A) must no longer be administered.
B) must produce equal mean scores for all races.
C) could no longer be race-normed.
D) violated the civil rights of minority groups.
Question
The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)should be race-normed was resolved when

A) the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
B) the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
C) Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
D) there was a public outcry against the continued use of the GATB.
Question
A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions about the testtaker?

A) The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the person's system.
B) An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
C) The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
D) None of these
Question
Items such as "I get along well with others" and "I enjoy math" are representative of the types of items presented on which of the following vocational assessment instruments?

A) the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B) the General Aptitude Test Battery
C) the Minnesota Clerical Test
D) the Strong Interest Inventory
Question
Bizot and Goldman (1993)examined the predictive criterion validity of interest inventories and ability tests in relation to future job performance and job satisfaction.They concluded that

A) interest is predictive of job performance.
B) aptitude is predictive of job performance.
C) interest is predictive of job satisfaction.
D) All of these
Question
Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?

A) Myers
B) Strong
C) Bray
D) Briggs
Question
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)was based on the theoretical writings ofThe Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)was based on the theoretical writings of

A)Sigmund Freud.
B)B.F.Skinner.
C)Carl Jung.
D)Holland Opus
Question
Bizot and Goldman (1993)found that ________________ scores in high school are predictive of _______________ in adulthood.

A) interest test; job satisfaction
B) interest test; job performance
C) ability test; job satisfaction
D) ability test; job performance
Question
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more acceptable way of measuring impairment than drug testing.The use of video games in such a way would BEST be characterized by assessment psychologists as

A) drug testing.
B) authentic assessment.
C) performance assessment.
D) aptitude testing.
Question
One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is

A) a new employee in a large company.
B) a current employee in a small service organization.
C) completing military service.
D) a current employee in a large company.
Question
It has been estimated that drug testing is used by approximately ________% of companies in the United States.

A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 45
Question
A false-negative drug test is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions about the testtaker?

A) The testtaker is taking depression medication.
B) The testtaker consumed something with poppy-seeds in them recently.
C) The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this.
D) None of these
Question
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI)is designed to assess

A) intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
B) ability to work with people and ability to work alone.
C) interest in intellectually demanding work as opposed to routine, non-demanding work.
D) active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style.
Question
Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed concerns about

A) the accuracy of the drug testing.
B) unconstitutional search and seizure.
C) violation of privacy rights.
D) All of these
Question
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI)is designed to assess two characteristics.Factor analysis indicates that two factors are in fact present on the test and correspond to the two types of motivation postulated by the test developers.Given these facts,it seems reasonable to conclude that the test has documented evidence of its

A) internal consistency.
B) construct validity.
C) face validity.
D) test-retest reliability.
Question
In the late 1980s,there was a nationwide controversy regarding the race-norming of the

A) Mooney Faces Test.
B) General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
C) MMPI-2.
D) Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
Question
How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests?

A) Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
B) Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the presented.
C) Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests measure present learning.
D) Most aptitude tests are administered by means of paper and pencil while most achievement tests are computer-administered.
Question
Which of the following are typically variables reviewed when evaluating organizational commitment?

A) absenteeism
B) supervisory complaints regarding work ethic or other ethics-related issues
C) quality of work
D) All of these
Question
According to your textbook,a ___________ is defined as "a task,an undertaking,or an activity performed for pay."

A) career
B) occupation
C) job
D) vocation
Question
Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be

A) invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
B) more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
C) predictive of future job performance.
D) poorly correlated with self-ratings.
Question
An assessment center is

A) a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational psychologist.
B) a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques.
C) a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
D) Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques and a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
Question
Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment Questionnaire (OCQ)?

A) The OCQ was developed in China.
B) The OCQ has not demonstrated construct validity but this may be an artifact of the variables measured.
C) The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
D) An early draft of the OCQ was field-tested on 100 social workers.
Question
Which is NOT a key component of organizational commitment?

A) loyalty and involvement in the organization
B) a value system consistent with that of the organization
C) length of time with the organization
D) the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
Question
The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that 8 years after their completion,interest inventories administered in high school had predicted

A) job performance.
B) job satisfaction.
C) neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
D) the administrative level achieved.
Question
According to your text,an assumption underlying the development of the Strong Interest Inventory was

A) if an assessee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less on-the-job stress.
B) if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the assessee may be well suited for the job.
C) all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar interests.
D) the more interests an assessee has, the more adaptable he or she will be to various job-related situations.
Question
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment.Which is an advantage of the use of video games in this way?

A) immediate feedback concerning impairment
B) improved employee satisfaction
C) demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
D) All of these
Question
The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS)at American Telephone and Telegraph (AT&T)

A) represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial setting.
B) was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and non-management employees.
C) was headed by Donald Super who was later honored by the NFL when it re-named its championship "Bowl" game in his honor.
D) was sponsored by IBM and a dozen or so other companies known by three-letter acronyms.
Question
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the role of personality measures in business and organizational settings?

A) The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening applicants for every variety of employment.
B) The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job is irrelevant to personality measurement.
C) The MMPI-2-RF has quickly become the most widely used measure of personality in business and organizational settings.
D) Personality tests are playing less and less of a role in business and organizational settings with every passing year.
Question
How do application forms differ from résumés?

A) Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are used for selection.
B) Application forms offer relevant background information regarding education and employment history; résumés typically do not.
C) Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
D) Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing; résumés are not.
Question
Résumés and application forms are BEST classified as ________ instruments.

A) placement
B) screening
C) hiring
D) classification
Question
According to your textbook,the typical objective of a performance test is to

A) compare an employee's performance with that of other employees.
B) assess the speed of an employee in completing a job-related task.
C) determine the accuracy of an employee's performance under stressful conditions.
D) obtain a job-related performance sample.
Question
The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test would most likely be used by an employer interested in

A) understanding a worker's motivation to respond quickly with accuracy.
B) evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
C) finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line.
D) increasing profit margins by increasing the utility of the selection tools.
Question
According to your textbook,the most complete picture of a job applicant's actual abilities can BEST be obtained from a

A) portfolio assessment.
B) personal interview.
C) detailed résumé.
D) letter of recommendation.
Question
Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measure for the purpose of employee screening?

A) testing an industrial worker's hearing
B) testing a police officer's speed and agility
C) measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
D) using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty
Question
Tests designed to evaluate commitment to an organization include measures of

A) loyalty.
B) attendance.
C) Both loyalty and attendance.
D) None of these.
Question
Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?

A) It is often used as a screening tool.
B) It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
C) It measures both speed and accuracy.
D) It can be administered and scored quickly.
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Deck 15: Assessment,Careers,and Business
1
OSS candidates were formally and informally assessed at the OSS assessment and training facility over the course of a total of ____.

A) 3 days
B) 5 days
C) one week
D) 10 days
A
2
Once at the OSS training and assessment facility,the candidates

A) were interviewed by psychologists, completed questionnaires, and sat for paper-and-pencil tests.
B) had their performance evaluated on a highly stressful, but mock interrogation.
C) were challenged to build a small wooden structure using "assistants" who deliberately frustrated the candidates' efforts.
D) All of these
D
3
According to Mark

A) is tied to its compelling demonstration of the utility of psychological testing and assessment.
B) lives on in the modern day use of assessment centers for personnel selection in corporate America.
C) is very much a part of assessment centers conducted by today's governmental agencies.
D) All of these
F) Lenzenweger, the legacy of the OSS assessment program
D
4
A number of factors conspired to make the task of the OSS one of the most complicated behavioral prediction challenges ever encountered in the history clinical psychology.These factors included

A) identifying psychological attributes that corresponded to OSS duties.
B) the novelty of the OSS function.
C) the variability of job requirements for OSS intelligence agents to be recruited.
D) All of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
5
According to Mark

A) "junior varsity."
B) "recently licensed."
C) "all over the map."
D) "all-star."
F) Lenzenweger, the team of psychologists that was assembled to create the novel assessment program for personnel selection for the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) could be characterized as
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
6
While at the OSS assessment and training facility,the candidates

A) were not allowed to verbally interact with each other.
B) were encouraged to view Survivor re-runs on VHS.
C) would inevitably have a physical altercation with either "Buster" or "Kippy."
D) None of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
7
As an alternative to analyzing OSS jobs into their component psychological attributes,the OSS Assessment Staff set what they characterized as ______ assessment as their objective.

A) orgasmic
B) organismic
C) orthogonal
D) None of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
8
According to Mark

A) James "Big Jim" Thornton.
B) Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
C) Samuel "Secret Sammy" Sanders.
D) William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
F) Lenzenweger, one of the major turning points in the history of psychological assessment came as the result of the forward-thinking action of a U.S. Army General named
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
9
OSS assessment and training was conducted at a location that was code-named _____,but was informally referred to as ____.

A) the homestead; the farm
B) Farm 44; the station
C) Station S; the farm
D) Dulles; the airport
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
10
Candidates for OSS training arrived at the OSS instructional facility for assessment and training from

A) their homes throughout the United States.
B) specially designated hotels in Roanoke, Virginia where they had been instructed to assemble.
C) United States military bases.
D) All of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
11
Ultimately,psychologists evaluated OSS candidates on the basis of data derived from

A) the full range of assessments, considered as a whole.
B) a series of individual tests, each measuring a required ability.
C) a single test with scales for each of the required abilities.
D) a complex weighting of case history data and cognitive/behavioral tasks.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
12
Candidates for the OSS would have to be all of the following EXCEPT

A) resourceful.
B) contemplative.
C) emotionally resilient.
D) creative.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
13
According to Mark

A) the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B) the US Army Special Forces.
C) both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
D) None of these.
F) Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) is viewed today as the forerunner to
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
14
According to MarkAccording to Mark F.Lenzenweger,the Office of Strategic Services (OSS)is viewed today as the forerunner to

A)the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B)the US Army Special Forces.
C)both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)and the US Army Special Forces.
D)None of these.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
15
The final decision regarding the status of an OSS was made by

A) senior OSS staff officials.
B) psychologists on-site at the training and assessment facility.
C) senior Department of the Army officials.
D) Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
16
Identifying candidates for OSS positions represented a "real-world" problem that would ultimately be addressed by means of

A) a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
B) a highly incentivized recruiting program.
C) an imaginative but cost-effective advertising program.
D) All of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 185 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
17
All of the following were objectives of America's first intelligence service EXCEPT

A) gathering information about the intentions and activities of this country's adversaries.
B) executing operations aimed at disrupting foreign enemy actions.
C) identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United States.
D) sabotaging foreign enemy assets.
Unlock Deck
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k this deck
18
The model of assessment and personnel selection devised by OSS personnel was

A) generally consistent with the then-current practices.
B) unreliable as a result of then-existing time pressures.
C) revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
D) has remained classified to the present day.
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19
The OSS assessments resulted in mounds of notes and other data about the candidates' suitability for intelligence work.All of this information was

A) analyzed in triple-blind fashion by a panel of three psychologists.
B) sent to OSS headquarters in Washington,
C) reviewed and debated at a staff conference.
D) All of these
D)C. for a preliminary recommendation.
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20
The varied responsibilities of the OSS raised many questions for the OSS team of assessor psychologists.According to Mark

A) "What defines 'usefulness to the organization'?"
B) "What psychological attributes can we reasonably assess in the space of a relatively short visit to the assessment facility?"
C) "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied demands required of OSS intelligence officers?"
D) "What specific aspects of personality should be the focus of our assessments?"
F) Lenzenweger, the "bottom line" question for the assessors could BEST be phrased as,
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21
Computer simulations and video games have earned a place as a tool of vocational assessment-so much so,that they are sometimes even referred to as

A) portfolio evaluations.
B) performance tests.
C) online interviews.
D) cyberselection tools.
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22
According to Dr.Jed Yalof,in the workplace,the problems of one individual,such as chronic lateness or chronic moodiness,are likely to negatively impact the focus and productivity of

A) that individual.
B) other workers.
C) both that individual and other workers.
D) all workers in that industry.
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23
The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)

A) is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists.
B) was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
C) taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
D) Both is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists and was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
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24
The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal criteria is referred to as

A) classification.
B) directed search.
C) screening.
D) interviewing.
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25
Vocational assessment that entails performance samples

A) may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
B) generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks.
C) have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving and decision making.
D) are used extensively in the hiring of valets.
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26
Race-norming entails

A) including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test.
B) adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
C) Both including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test and adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
D) None of these
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27
When hiring new personnel,the term that BEST describes the process by which applicants are accepted or rejected is

A) selection.
B) placement.
C) classification.
D) directed search.
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28
Performance assessments

A) provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths and weaknesses.
B) involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
C) provide a job-related sample of behavior.
D) are usually not standardized.
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29
In the evaluation of worker productivity

A) final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future worker production and job tenure.
B) peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
C) peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors.
D) the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors.
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30
Although not identified as such at the time of hire,there are employees who turn out to be "poor-fits" for their job or work place.According to Dr.Jed Yalof,such individuals may

A) have been easily screened out by basic self-report measures and never hired.
B) be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they got the job.
C) have served time in prison for forging work credentials in the past.
D) All of these
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31
A "real time,live action" approach to assessment that requires assessees to demonstrate abilities that typically are characteristic of those they might encounter on-the-job is referred to as:

A) portfolio assessment.
B) performance assessment.
C) curriculum-based assessment.
D) authentic assessment.
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32
In the context of business settings,which of the following BEST exemplifies a process related to validity generalization?

A) validating a projective personality technique for use in determining leadership ability and integrity
B) selecting standardized instruments that include validity scales for use in recruiting new trainees for a local police department
C) determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial work can be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver
D) creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate actual job requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers
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33
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in pre-employment screening of job applicants for unskilled positions in a large corporation?

A) application blanks
B) letters of recommendation
C) interviews
D) aptitude measures
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34
Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?

A) It can yield insights into how employees or prospective employees think about work-related things.
B) The prospective employer can view samples of the applicant's work product.
C) It potentially allows the employer entry into a side of the employee's world that would otherwise be private.
D) Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed areas carries with it federal tax benefits.
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35
Which of the following does NOT belong?

A) an "in-basket" task
B) a computerized jet fighter simulation
C) a word processing test
D) a polygraph test
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36
The image in Chapter 15 of your textbook of Steve Martin as a dentist in Little Shop of Horrors was used to illustrate a point about occupational choice and

A) burnout.
B) interests.
C) productivity.
D) workplace drug testing.
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k this deck
37
Application forms used in employment settings

A) are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
B) have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies.
C) are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
D) Both have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies and are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
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38
The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual's level of performance within a racial group is referred to as

A) racial bias.
B) discrimination.
C) race-norming.
D) intercept bias.
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k this deck
39
Letters of recommendation used in employment settings

A) are generally not very useful since they are all typically favorable.
B) are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
C) have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee selection.
D) are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured.
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40
According to Dr.Jed Yalof,potential problems may arise with employees who misrepresented their credentials to gain employment.These employees may

A) try to bend the rules of the workplace.
B) down-play or disregard supervisory feedback.
C) be inappropriately competitive with co-workers.
D) All of these
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41
Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)tends to be low,probably because of

A) the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
B) the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
C) a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
D) scoring that is based in part on the race of the test-taker.
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42
Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB)was viewed as appropriate by the National Academy of Sciences because

A) the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and Caucasians is represented by different regression lines.
B) the various groups for which data exists are being held to the same standards.
C) African-Americans are more likely than Caucasians to come from disadvantaged backgrounds, and race-norming the test compensates to some degree for that disadvantage.
D) so few minority group members take the test that the net effect of the race-norming would not yield the desired consequence.
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43
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the Strong Interest Inventory as the use of this test relates to respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds?

A) The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds.
B) The evidence does NOT support the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds.
C) The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds has only begun to be investigated and no findings have yet been reported.
D) The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds is moot as the test publisher has made highly specific recommendations regarding which testtakers from which cultures the test is appropriate for use with.
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44
The Strong Interest Inventory measures

A) vocational aptitudes.
B) vocational interests.
C) vocational interests and aptitudes.
D) vocational interests and general mental ability.
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45
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery

A) must no longer be administered.
B) must produce equal mean scores for all races.
C) could no longer be race-normed.
D) violated the civil rights of minority groups.
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46
The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)should be race-normed was resolved when

A) the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
B) the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
C) Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
D) there was a public outcry against the continued use of the GATB.
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k this deck
47
A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions about the testtaker?

A) The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the person's system.
B) An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
C) The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
D) None of these
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48
Items such as "I get along well with others" and "I enjoy math" are representative of the types of items presented on which of the following vocational assessment instruments?

A) the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B) the General Aptitude Test Battery
C) the Minnesota Clerical Test
D) the Strong Interest Inventory
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49
Bizot and Goldman (1993)examined the predictive criterion validity of interest inventories and ability tests in relation to future job performance and job satisfaction.They concluded that

A) interest is predictive of job performance.
B) aptitude is predictive of job performance.
C) interest is predictive of job satisfaction.
D) All of these
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k this deck
50
Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?

A) Myers
B) Strong
C) Bray
D) Briggs
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51
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)was based on the theoretical writings ofThe Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)was based on the theoretical writings of

A)Sigmund Freud.
B)B.F.Skinner.
C)Carl Jung.
D)Holland Opus
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k this deck
52
Bizot and Goldman (1993)found that ________________ scores in high school are predictive of _______________ in adulthood.

A) interest test; job satisfaction
B) interest test; job performance
C) ability test; job satisfaction
D) ability test; job performance
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53
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more acceptable way of measuring impairment than drug testing.The use of video games in such a way would BEST be characterized by assessment psychologists as

A) drug testing.
B) authentic assessment.
C) performance assessment.
D) aptitude testing.
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54
One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is

A) a new employee in a large company.
B) a current employee in a small service organization.
C) completing military service.
D) a current employee in a large company.
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55
It has been estimated that drug testing is used by approximately ________% of companies in the United States.

A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 45
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56
A false-negative drug test is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions about the testtaker?

A) The testtaker is taking depression medication.
B) The testtaker consumed something with poppy-seeds in them recently.
C) The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this.
D) None of these
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57
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI)is designed to assess

A) intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
B) ability to work with people and ability to work alone.
C) interest in intellectually demanding work as opposed to routine, non-demanding work.
D) active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style.
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58
Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed concerns about

A) the accuracy of the drug testing.
B) unconstitutional search and seizure.
C) violation of privacy rights.
D) All of these
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59
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI)is designed to assess two characteristics.Factor analysis indicates that two factors are in fact present on the test and correspond to the two types of motivation postulated by the test developers.Given these facts,it seems reasonable to conclude that the test has documented evidence of its

A) internal consistency.
B) construct validity.
C) face validity.
D) test-retest reliability.
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k this deck
60
In the late 1980s,there was a nationwide controversy regarding the race-norming of the

A) Mooney Faces Test.
B) General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
C) MMPI-2.
D) Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
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61
How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests?

A) Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
B) Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the presented.
C) Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests measure present learning.
D) Most aptitude tests are administered by means of paper and pencil while most achievement tests are computer-administered.
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62
Which of the following are typically variables reviewed when evaluating organizational commitment?

A) absenteeism
B) supervisory complaints regarding work ethic or other ethics-related issues
C) quality of work
D) All of these
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63
According to your textbook,a ___________ is defined as "a task,an undertaking,or an activity performed for pay."

A) career
B) occupation
C) job
D) vocation
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64
Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be

A) invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
B) more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
C) predictive of future job performance.
D) poorly correlated with self-ratings.
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k this deck
65
An assessment center is

A) a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational psychologist.
B) a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques.
C) a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
D) Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques and a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
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66
Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment Questionnaire (OCQ)?

A) The OCQ was developed in China.
B) The OCQ has not demonstrated construct validity but this may be an artifact of the variables measured.
C) The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
D) An early draft of the OCQ was field-tested on 100 social workers.
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67
Which is NOT a key component of organizational commitment?

A) loyalty and involvement in the organization
B) a value system consistent with that of the organization
C) length of time with the organization
D) the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
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68
The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that 8 years after their completion,interest inventories administered in high school had predicted

A) job performance.
B) job satisfaction.
C) neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
D) the administrative level achieved.
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69
According to your text,an assumption underlying the development of the Strong Interest Inventory was

A) if an assessee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less on-the-job stress.
B) if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the assessee may be well suited for the job.
C) all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar interests.
D) the more interests an assessee has, the more adaptable he or she will be to various job-related situations.
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70
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment.Which is an advantage of the use of video games in this way?

A) immediate feedback concerning impairment
B) improved employee satisfaction
C) demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
D) All of these
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k this deck
71
The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS)at American Telephone and Telegraph (AT&T)

A) represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial setting.
B) was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and non-management employees.
C) was headed by Donald Super who was later honored by the NFL when it re-named its championship "Bowl" game in his honor.
D) was sponsored by IBM and a dozen or so other companies known by three-letter acronyms.
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72
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the role of personality measures in business and organizational settings?

A) The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening applicants for every variety of employment.
B) The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job is irrelevant to personality measurement.
C) The MMPI-2-RF has quickly become the most widely used measure of personality in business and organizational settings.
D) Personality tests are playing less and less of a role in business and organizational settings with every passing year.
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73
How do application forms differ from résumés?

A) Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are used for selection.
B) Application forms offer relevant background information regarding education and employment history; résumés typically do not.
C) Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
D) Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing; résumés are not.
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74
Résumés and application forms are BEST classified as ________ instruments.

A) placement
B) screening
C) hiring
D) classification
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75
According to your textbook,the typical objective of a performance test is to

A) compare an employee's performance with that of other employees.
B) assess the speed of an employee in completing a job-related task.
C) determine the accuracy of an employee's performance under stressful conditions.
D) obtain a job-related performance sample.
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76
The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test would most likely be used by an employer interested in

A) understanding a worker's motivation to respond quickly with accuracy.
B) evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
C) finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line.
D) increasing profit margins by increasing the utility of the selection tools.
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77
According to your textbook,the most complete picture of a job applicant's actual abilities can BEST be obtained from a

A) portfolio assessment.
B) personal interview.
C) detailed résumé.
D) letter of recommendation.
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78
Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measure for the purpose of employee screening?

A) testing an industrial worker's hearing
B) testing a police officer's speed and agility
C) measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
D) using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty
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79
Tests designed to evaluate commitment to an organization include measures of

A) loyalty.
B) attendance.
C) Both loyalty and attendance.
D) None of these.
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80
Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?

A) It is often used as a screening tool.
B) It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
C) It measures both speed and accuracy.
D) It can be administered and scored quickly.
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