Deck 6: Selecting Applicants

Question 1

Validity is a technical term for effectiveness.

Answer 1

True
Validity refers to the appropriateness, meaningfulness, and usefulness of inferences about selection processes and thus is the technical term for effectiveness.

Question 2

Managers should avoid asking any questions regarding pregnancy during an employment interview.

Answer 2

True
Managers should avoid asking any questions regarding pregnancy during an employment interview.

Question 3

An employer may justify its rejection of an older applicant based on the grounds that it costs more to employ such workers.

Answer 3

False
Justifying discrimination against older workers based on this issue has not been supported in the courts.

Question 4

In using a criterion-related strategy to assess and document the validity of selection practices, a firm attempts to demonstrate that other companies have already demonstrated the validity of the selection instruments for similar jobs.

Question 5

Before rejecting candidates or disciplining employees because their religious views or practices would interfere with management aims, a manager must first consider whether a reasonable accommodation can be made.

Question 6

Validity generalization is established by demonstrating that a selection device has been consistently found to be valid in many other similar settings.

Question 7

Predictor scores report the job performance level achieved by an individual, usually based on supervisor evaluations.

Question 8

Employers are prohibited from harassing job applicants because of their national origin.

Question 9

Sound selection processes rarely affect a firm's bottom line.

Question 10

The behavior consistency model implies that the most effective selection procedures are those that focus on the candidates' past or present behaviors in situations that closely match those they will encounter on the job.

Question 11

Predictive validation studies are more commonly used because they can be conducted more quickly.

Question 12

Employers cannot be held liable for sexual harassment allegations made by job applicants.

Question 13

The reliability of a measure refers to its consistency.

Question 14

Accurate selection procedures cannot minimize training costs.

Question 15

The more closely an assessment simulates actual job behaviors, the better the prediction.

Question 16

A content-oriented strategy is appropriate for demonstrating the validity of selection procedures, which purport to measure traits or constructs such as intelligence, aptitude, personality, or leadership.

Question 17

The reliability of a selection interview will generally not be affected by an interviewer's behavior.

Question 18

In discrimination litigation, courts often judge the job-relatedness of a selection practice based on whether the selection criteria are based on job analysis.

Question 19

In a predictive validation study, information is gathered on actual job applicants.

Question 20

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces most federal antidiscrimination laws.

Question 21

The degree of self-consistency among the scores earned by an individual in a selection test is called ____.

A) reliability
B) validity
C) accuracy
D) consistency

Question 22

With respect to an organization's selection practices, ____ is a technical term for effectiveness.

A) reliability
B) validity
C) stability
D) flexibility

Question 23

Interviews raise the same legal concerns as application blanks.

Question 24

All but which of the following activities form a basis for the targeted selection system?

A) Identify the critical job requirements for the position.
B) Organize selection elements into a comprehensive system.
C) Use present behavior to predict future behavior.
D) Apply effective interviewing skills and techniques.

Question 25

Companies run a higher risk of litigation due to their selection practices when:

A) interviewers are not properly trained to ask job-related questions.
B) tests given to the candidate are related to the specific job they perform.
C) the organization has made every effort to validate selection criteria.
D) the organization utilizes objective selection criteria.

Question 26

The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 bans most public-sector employers from using polygraph tests in the selection of candidates.

Question 27

An employer's obligation to inquire into someone's fitness varies, depending on the nature of the job in question.

Question 28

Work sample tests are appropriate for situations in which an applicant is expected to be skilled at the time of hire.

Question 29

All but which of the following can have a positive effect on the reliability of a selection method?

A) Candidates are put at ease during the process.
B) Interviewers will primarily ask highly difficult questions during the interview.
C) Candidates clearly understand the questions being asked in the interview.
D) Interviewers and candidates develop a good rapport during the process.

Question 30

In assessing and documenting the validity of its selection practices, an organization that demonstrates that it followed proper procedures in the development and use of its selection devices is said to follow a ____ strategy.

A) criterion-related
B) content-oriented
C) validity generalization
D) reliability

Question 31

Research studies have found that biodata inventories are excellent predictors of job success.

Question 32

There is strong research evidence supporting the validity of personality tests for employee selection.

Question 33

The ____ model specifies that the best predictor of future job behavior is past behavior performed under similar circumstances.

A) behavior consistency
B) value-added equity
C) job hierarchy
D) behavior motivation

Question 34

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, employers are not required to notify job applicants when employment is denied because of information obtained during a background investigation prepared by an investigative agency.

Question 35

Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act specifically prohibits employers from inquiring about a person's sex.

Question 36

The ____ of a selection method is maximized when two people evaluating the same candidate provide the same rating.

A) usability
B) flexibility
C) validity
D) reliability

Question 37

To achieve validity, a manager must use selection methods that reliably and accurately measure ____ .

A) job qualifications
B) job profiles
C) job context
D) job content

Question 38

Effective selection practices can impact an organization's competitive advantage in all but which of the following ways?

A) Improved productivity
B) Achieving legal compliance
C) Increased profits
D) Increased training costs

Question 39

Line managers are rarely involved in the EEOC investigation process associated with discrimination charges.

Question 40

Information contained on the application blank can rarely be used to identify problem employees.

Question 41

In following a ____ strategy, the firm attempts to demonstrate that other companies have already demonstrated the validity of the selection instruments.

A) content-oriented
B) criterion-related
C) validity generalization
D) reliability

Question 42

The Uniform Guidelines specify that if an employment decision such as selection, promotion, transfer, or retention results in disparate impact, the organization must eliminate the selection device causing the disparate impact or:

A) reassess the validity of the selection device.
B) reassess the reliability of the selection device.
C) demonstrate the validity of the selection device.
D) demonstrate the reliability of the selection device.

Question 43

Which of the following pieces of information is required to gather criterion-related evidence?

A) Predictor score and criterion score
B) Predictor score and reliability score
C) Criterion score and reliability score
D) Criterion score and value-added score

Question 44

By using which of the following can a firm demonstrate that a selection device has been consistently found to be valid in many other similar setting?

A) Content-oriented strategy
B) Criterion-related strategy
C) Validity generalization strategy
D) Behavior consistency model

Question 45

When a ____ of r =.3 is attained, a firm can conclude that the inferences made during the selection process have been confirmed.

A) predictor score
B) criterion score
C) validity coefficient
D) reliability coefficient

Question 46

When utilizing a criterion-related validation strategy, ____ represent how well the individual fared during the selection process.

A) criterion scores
B) predictor scores
C) device scores
D) value-added scores

Question 47

When using a ____ strategy, the firm attempts to demonstrate statistically that someone who does well on a selection instrument is more likely to be a good job performer than someone who does poorly.

A) content-oriented
B) criterion-related
C) validity generalization
D) predictive validation

Question 48

In a predictive validation study, information is gathered on:

A) actual job applicants.
B) current employees.
C) the organization's top employees.
D) the organization's underperforming employees.

Question 49

Which of the following is a step in the concurrent validation process?

A) Administer the selection procedure to a group of applicants.
B) Administer the selection procedure to a group of job incumbents.
C) Disregard selection scores and randomly select applicants.
D) Disregard selection scores and select all applicants.

Question 50

In a concurrent validation study, information is gathered on:

A) job applicants.
B) job qualifications.
C) current employees.
D) selected candidates.

Question 51

The sole use of a ____ strategy for demonstrating validity is most appropriate for selection devices that directly assess job behavior.

A) validity generalization
B) criterion-related
C) content-oriented
D) predictive validation

Question 52

In following a ____ strategy, a firm attempts to provide evidence showing a relationship between applicant selection scores and subsequent job performance levels.

A) content-oriented
B) validity generalization
C) criterion-related
D) reliability

Question 53

The EEOC's Uniform Guidelines impose all but which of the following requirements on job analysis?

A) The KSAs that can be readily learned on the job should be included.
B) The KSAs should be clearly defined in terms of observable work behaviors.
C) The KSAs should be prerequisites for important work behaviors.
D) The KSAs should be restricted to those which the applicant should possess at entry into the position.

Question 54

To be considered valid, the ____ must be statistically significant, and its magnitude must be sufficiently large to be of practical value.

A) predictor score
B) criterion score
C) validity coefficient
D) reliability coefficient

Question 55

Written documents that suggest, or in some instances dictate, how management practices should be implemented in accordance with the law are called ____.

A) government guidelines
B) management guidelines
C) management policy
D) legal guidelines

Question 56

The federal agency that administers most federal employment antidiscrimination laws is the:

A) NLRB.
B) EEOC.
C) OFCCP.
D) EPA.

Question 57

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's functions include enforcing the law and:

A) formulating the law.
B) ratifying the law.
C) interpreting the law.
D) evaluating the law.

Question 58

In reviewing the content-oriented validation strategy, courts require all but which of the following types of evidence from employers?

A) The instrument must be based on a proper job evaluation.
B) The items should be properly constructed so that they accurately measure the attributes they have been designed to measure.
C) The difficulty level of the items should be appropriate for the job in question.
D) The cut-off or passing score should be set in an appropriate manner.

Question 59

Which document validity strategy does a firm use in trying to show that its selection devices were properly designed and were accurate measures of the needed worker requirements?

A) Content-oriented
B) Criterion-related
C) Validity generalization
D) Predictive validation

Question 60

When utilizing a criterion-related strategy, ____ represent the job performance level achieved by the individual, usually based on supervisor evaluations.

A) predictor scores
B) value-added scores
C) criterion scores
D) reliability scores

Question 61

Which of the following requires employers to accommodate a reasonable request for religious accommodation, as long as the accommodation does not pose an undue hardship on their business operations?

A) The Fourth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution
B) The Fifth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution
C) The Civil Rights Act of 1964
D) The Equal Pay Act of 1963

Question 62

Which law is designed to protect applicants' rights in the event of a background investigation conducted by an investigative agency?

A) National Labor Relations Act
B) Fair Credit Reporting Act
C) Labor-Management Relations Act
D) Federal Privacy Act

Question 63

When questions included on the biodata inventory are identical to those included on the application blank, the instrument is called a:

A) weighted application blank.
B) mental ability test.
C) biographical information blank.
D) job specification inventory.

Question 64

____ examines how an applicant would react in certain hypothetical job-related situations.

A) Situational information
B) Self-evaluative information
C) Behavior description information
D) Personality information

Question 65

All but which of the following are legal guidelines for giving references?

A) Obtain written consent from the employee prior to giving any information.
B) Provide all the information available.
C) Avoid subjective statements.
D) Report only fully documented and provable facts.

Question 66

____ examines an applicant's likes and dislikes, strengths and weaknesses, goals, attitudes, and philosophies.

A) Situational information
B) Self-evaluative information
C) Behavior description information
D) Personality information

Question 67

When judging a claim of ____, the courts apply a standard called the de minimis principle.

A) undue hardship
B) business necessity
C) BFOQ defense
D) job-relatedness

Question 68

Former employers are reluctant to fully disclose relevant information about ex-employees because of the fear that unfavorable responses may lead to:

A) discrimination lawsuits.
B) defamation lawsuits.
C) disparate impact lawsuits.
D) disparate treatment lawsuits.

Question 69

Which is the only federal law that expressly forbids particular questions on an application blank?

A) Age Discrimination in Employment Act
B) Immigration Reform and Control Act
C) Americans with Disabilities Act
D) Pregnancy Discrimination Act

Question 70

The age discrimination guidelines state that an employment practice that has a disparate impact on individuals protected under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act is unlawful unless it can be justified by a(n):

A) BFOQ defense.
B) business necessity.
C) job-relatedness.
D) undue hardship.

Question 71

____ involve collecting data from an applicants' previous employers to verify information provided by the applicant.

A) Reference checks
B) Background investigations
C) Biodata inventories
D) Application blanks

Question 72

What is the current legal position on an item with disparate impact, which has a statistical relationship with job success?

A) Courts declare the item as illegal.
B) Courts declare the item as legal.
C) There are no legal precedents for deciding the issue.
D) The law prohibits the use of such items.

Question 73

The ____ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution pertains to an individual's privacy rights and protects job candidates and employees from unreasonable intrusions by the employer.

A) Second
B) Fourth
C) Fifth
D) Fourteenth

Question 74

Which of the following statements regarding amendments is not true?

A) Amendments deem any form of unjustifiable discrimination unlawful.
B) Amendments are restricted to protected classifications.
C) Gay rights are protected under the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.
D) Fifth Amendment provides all citizens with equal protection under the law.

Question 75

____ are similar to application blanks, where applicants are asked to provide background information about themselves.

A) Biodata inventories
B) Data sheets
C) Material data sheets
D) Job specification inventories

Question 76

Reference checking serves the ____ by obtaining information from parties who have witnessed an applicant's past behavior firsthand.

A) behavior consistency model
B) content-oriented strategy
C) criterion-related strategy
D) validity generalization strategy

Question 77

When questions included on the biodata inventory are designed to cover a broad array of background information, the instrument is called a:

A) weighted application blank.
B) background investigation.
C) biographical information blank.
D) job specification inventory.

Question 78

Former employers who provide potential employers information about employees who previously worked for them can defend against defamation claims by doing all but which of the following?

A) Providing information that can be proven true.
B) Not conveying the information with malicious intent.
C) Communicating information to the general public.
D) Communicating job-related information.

Question 79

Under the ADA, the definition of disability covers all but which of the following?

A) Someone who is HIV positive
B) A blind person
C) Someone suffering from manic depression
D) Someone who is currently using illegal drugs

Question 80

In determining whether or not an accommodation is an undue hardship for an employer, courts will examine all but which of the following?

A) If the employee gave reasonable notice to the employer.
B) The size and nature of the business.
C) If the cost of accommodation is more than substantial.
D) The amount of expense involved.