Deck 5: Selection

Question 1

A selection ratio of 1:3 generally means that

A) there are many applicants from whom to select.
B) there are high quality recruits and many applicants from whom to select.
C) there are low quality recruits, but many applicants, from whom to select.
D) there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select.
E) there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select who are also likely low quality recruits.

Answer 1

E
there are a limited number of applicants from whom to select who are also likely low quality recruits.

Question 2

Employers are increasingly being held liable for damages stemming from their

A) use of invalid selection tests.
B) discriminatory practices in the selection process.
C) failure to abide by employment equity legislative requirements.
D) negligent hiring of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job.
E) use of unreliable selection tests.

Answer 2

D
negligent hiring of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job

Question 3

Differential validity is

A) the extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of work behaviour.
B) confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible employee subgroups, including white males.
C) the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it is supposed to measure.
D) the extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct or trait deemed necessary to perform the job well.
E) none of the above.

Answer 3

B
confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible employee subgroups, including white males.

Question 4

Which of the following is true of preliminary applicant screening?

A) The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular at this stage of the selection process.
B) It involves eliminating candidates lacking the "nice to have" selection criteria.
C) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the line managers.
D) It may involve selection testing.
E) It may involve candidate interviews.

Question 5

Strategic selection is important because of

A) ethical reasons.
B) the time and costs involved.
C) the costs involved, impact on performance, and legal implications.
D) the employment equity plan.
E) the budget required and legal implications.

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The HR department staff members generally screen and test applicants, perform reference checking, and make the final selection decision.
B) The types of selection instruments and screening devices used are fairly standardized.
C) Selection strategies should be continually refined, regardless of cost.
D) The organization's strategic plan places major constraints on selection decisions.
E) Selection plays a relatively minor role in the achievement of employment equity goals.

Question 7

The multiple hurdle strategy is an approach to selection involving

A) a selection of instruments for selection purposes.
B) a series of interviews.
C) a reliability and validity analysis.
D) a series of successive steps or hurdles.
E) none of the above.

Question 8

Selection is a strategic activity in that the ideal individual will possess the

A) required skills and fit for the organizational culture.
B) ability to fit with the strategic direction of the organization.
C) required skills, technical ability, and knowledge.
D) required KSAs, excellent performance, and fit for the organizational culture.
E) required KSAs with the right experience.

Question 9

The extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of work behaviour is known as

A) reliability.
B) predictive validity.
C) criterion-related validity.
D) differential validity.
E) content validity.

Question 10

Sandeep Gill is the manager of a busy local branch of a provincial credit union, Envirobank.The branch recently had to hire 5 new tellers to meet the rise in demand for branch services.The branch relied mainly on candidate interviews as a selection tool.Although Sandeep thought he had planned the candidate interviewing process well and had designed effective questions for assessing the candidates, the 3 candidates who were rated the highest in the interview did not meet basic performance expectations following their hire.The primary problem with the selection tool chosen and designed by Sandeep is one of

A) validity.
B) integrity.
C) reliability.
D) impression management.
E) nothing. There is no problem with this selection tool.

Question 11

Which of the following statements about selection testing is true?

A) Studies have shown that approximately two-thirds of Canadian organizations use tests for hiring.
B) The use of tests has been declining in recent years.
C) Selection testing generally involves a demonstration of skills.
D) Testing is more prevalent in small organizations.
E) Personality and aptitude tests are not commonly used for selection purposes.

Question 12

A selection ratio is

A) the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of applicants.
B) the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.
C) the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired.
D) the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants.
E) the cost per hire.

Question 13

Each of the following is a potential source of unreliability except

A) tiredness of the applicant.
B) the conditions under which the instrument is administered.
C) changes within the applicant.
D) chance response tendencies.
E) none of the above. There are no exceptions listed there.

Question 14

Initial applicant screening is typically performed by

A) computer technology.
B) HR professionals.
C) line managers.
D) an external recruitment agency.
E) voice-response technology.

Question 15

Which of the following are considered to be "hidden" costs of a poor selection process?

A) the cost of beginning the selection process over again when an unsuccessful employee is terminated
B) the cost of orienting a newly selected employee to replace the unsuccessful employee who was terminated
C) strategic objectives will not be met
D) customer alienation and internal disorganization when an unsuccessful employee is terminated
E) customer alienation only

Question 16

The consistency of scores obtained by a person when he or she is retested on the identical test or an equivalent version is an example of

A) reliability.
B) construct validity.
C) criterion-related reliability.
D) content validity.
E) validity.

Question 17

Yung is the manager of human resources at a credit union.Following an incident where a former employee was convicted for theft of customer account information, she has become increasingly concerned about negligent hiring lawsuits.Which of the following steps would be the most helpful in addressing her concern?

A) ensuring selection criteria are based on job descriptions
B) ensuring selection criteria are based on job specifications
C) carefully scrutinizing application forms and checking references
D) obtaining consent to check references
E) adequately assessing the applicant's ability to meet performance standards

Question 18

Suggested guidelines to avoid negative legal consequences include all of the following except

A) adequately assessing each applicant's ability to meet performance standards.
B) keeping careful records documenting each stage of the selection process.
C) rejecting applicants who make false statements on their application forms.
D) checking references very carefully.
E) none of the guidelines above are exceptions.

Question 19

Answering the question, "Does this predictor measure what it's supposed to measure?" is an assessment of

A) differential validity.
B) validity.
C) reliability.
D) aptitude and achievement.
E) personality and behaviour.

Question 20

Which of the following is true of the interview question, "How would you handle an angry customer?"

A) It tests intellectual capacity.
B) It tests knowledge and experience.
C) It is an example of behavioural interviewing.
D) It is a situational question.
E) It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience.

Question 21

Tests used to measure knowledge and/or proficiency acquired through education, training, and experience are known as:

A) achievement tests.
B) intelligence tests.
C) personality tests.
D) interest inventories.
E) aptitude tests.

Question 22

Tests that measure an individual's potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given proper training, are known as

A) aptitude tests.
B) interest inventories.
C) achievement tests.
D) personality tests.
E) intelligence tests.

Question 23

The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidates' management potential is known as

A) a leaderless group discussion.
B) a managerial aptitude test.
C) a management assessment centre.
D) a supervisory interest inventory.
E) an in-basket exercise.

Question 24

All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a step in the selection process except

A) to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical disability that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties.
B) to reduce absenteeism and accidents.
C) to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
D) to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.
E) none, there are no exceptions listed above.

Question 25

Work samples focus on measuring

A) hypothetical situations.
B) expert appraisers' evaluations.
C) the "Big Five" personality dimensions.
D) physical abilities only.
E) job performance directly.

Question 26

A test in which an ambiguous stimulus is presented and the person taking the test is expected to interpret or react to it, is a common type of

A) achievement test.
B) interest inventory.
C) intelligence test.
D) personality test.
E) aptitude test.

Question 27

Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following except

A) an in-basket exercise.
B) a leaderless group discussion.
C) on-the-job training.
D) individual presentations.
E) objective tests.

Question 28

Assessment centres are

A) useful for predicting success in jobs of all levels.
B) a better predictor of performance than any other selection tool.
C) a tool that assesses management potential using a special room with a one-way mirror.
D) an inexpensive selection strategy.
E) characterized by all of the above.

Question 29

Motor abilities a firm might want to measure include all of the following except

A) reaction time.
B) speed of arm movement.
C) manual dexterity.
D) finger dexterity.
E) spatial visualization.

Question 30

Intelligence tests measure all of the following traits except

A) verbal fluency.
B) memory.
C) extrasensory perception.
D) numerical ability.
E) vocabulary.

Question 31

The screening tool which is most often used by employers in the selection process is

A) working sampling.
B) an assessment centre.
C) an interview.
D) a personality test.
E) an interview and personality test.

Question 32

The following are physical abilities that an employer might want to measure except

A) climbing.
B) verbal abilities.
C) pulling/pushing strength.
D) lifting strength.
E) stamina.

Question 33

Interest inventories are tests that

A) measure basic elements of personality.
B) compare a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations.
C) measure job performance directly.
D) apply to extroversion and emotional stability.
E) measure knowledge and/or proficiency.

Question 34

The purpose of pre-employment substance abuse testing is to

A) determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
B) address absenteeism.
C) test mental abilities.
D) avoid hiring employees who would pose unnecessary risks to themselves or others.
E) reduce accidents.

Question 35

All of the following are common interviewer objectives except

A) selling their skills.
B) assessing applicants' qualifications.
C) providing candidates with information about the job.
D) promoting the organization.
E) observing interpersonal skills.

Question 36

Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicant's personality, which includes all of the following except

A) neurotic tendency.
B) stability.
C) introversion.
D) motivation.
E) dexterity.

Question 37

Which of the following statements about personality testing is true?

A) The "Big Five" personality dimensions include extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.
B) Attainment of the full potential of personality testing relates primarily to the careful analysis of test results.
C) Personality tests are not very useful for hiring purposes.
D) The predictive power of personality tests is generally quite low.
E) Extroversion is a valid predictor of performance for all occupations.

Question 38

All of the following statements about selection interviews are true except that

A) interviews significantly affect job applicants' views of the job and firm.
B) the interview is used by virtually all organizations for selection purposes.
C) interviews are conducted following testing in a majority of firms.
D) interviews enable the employer to fill in information gaps.
E) interview objectives include providing job applicants with information about expected duties of the position.

Question 39

A number of tests commonly used in selection can conveniently be classified according to whether they measure each of the following characteristics except

A) personal attractiveness and suitability.
B) motor and physical abilities.
C) memory.
D) monitoring one's own emotions.
E) general intellectual abilities.

Question 40

Micro-assessment focuses on

A) individual performance.
B) paper-based questions.
C) verbal questions.
D) group performance.
E) computer-based questions.

Question 41

The interview format that yields comparable answers and in-depth insights is known as

A) mixed.
B) behavioural.
C) stress-producing.
D) situational.
E) patterned.

Question 42

An example of a behavioural question is,

A) "What type of work do you want to be doing in five years?"
B) "Tell me about a time when you managed a situation requiring negotiation."
C) "If a co-worker hurt her back, what would you do?"
D) "What are the skill areas you must develop?"
E) None of the above are behavioural questions.

Question 43

The halo effect related to selection is

A) a negative initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating.
B) a positive initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating.
C) a negative impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer's rating.
D) a positive impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer's rating.
E) none of the above.

Question 44

The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as

A) nondirective.
B) structured.
C) mixed.
D) unstructured.
E) stress-producing.

Question 45

All of the following are common interviewing mistakes except

A) poor knowledge of job.
B) poor planning.
C) too little talking.
D) asking discriminatory questions.
E) making snap judgments.

Question 46

Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a series of preset candidate-specific questions?

A) mixed
B) situational
C) structured
D) nondirective
E) behavioural

Question 47

Advantages of a panel interview include all of the following except that

A) they require less time overall.
B) they include varied questions pertaining to each interviewer's area of expertise.
C) the likelihood of human rights or employment equity violations is greatly reduced.
D) there is less likelihood of interviewer error.
E) there are no exceptions listed above.

Question 48

Interviewers who don't know precisely what the job entails and what sort of candidate is best suited for it usually make their decisions based on

A) incorrect stereotypes.
B) applicant screening.
C) letters of reference.
D) employment test results.
E) candidate responses.

Question 49

Which error is of particular concern from a human rights law perspective?

A) influence of nonverbal behaviour
B) too little talking
C) playing attorney
D) contrast (candidate-order) error
E) telegraphing

Question 50

The interviewing method in which the applicant is interviewed by a number of people at once is known as a ___________ interview.

A) panel
B) mass
C) sequential
D) serialized
E) behavioural

Question 51

The interview technique that involves questions being asked as they come to mind is known as

A) directive.
B) mixed.
C) unstructured.
D) sequential.
E) structured.

Question 52

While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given situation, ________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation in the past.

A) stress; situational
B) behavioural; situational
C) structured; situational
D) situational; behavioural
E) nondirective; behavioural

Question 53

Most interviews are administered

A) simultaneously by a group.
B) by computers.
C) simultaneously by several candidates.
D) one-on-one.
E) on a standard evaluation form.

Question 54

When several candidates are interviewed simultaneously by a panel, this is referred to as a ________ interview.

A) mass
B) panel
C) sequential
D) stress
E) patterned

Question 55

Behavioural questions describe

A) hypothetical situations.
B) various situations experienced in the past.
C) future behaviour.
D) candidate personality.
E) preset candidate reactions.

Question 56

A common interviewing mistake is to make the interview itself mostly a search for

A) negative information.
B) information about medical history.
C) personal information.
D) positive information.
E) the ideal candidate.

Question 57

To comply with human rights laws, an interviewer should not ask questions about any of the following except

A) ethnic background.
B) childcare arrangements.
C) marital status.
D) workers' compensation history.
E) educational qualifications.

Question 58

An example of a situational question is,

A) "Tell me about a time when you managed numerous priorities in a short period of time."
B) "Tell me about a time when you had to discipline an employee arriving late for work three days in a row."
C) "How would you handle an irate boss who was just told that the output in the department was below standard?"
D) "What type of computer skills are you proficient in?"
E) None of the above.

Question 59

Asking an applicant how he or she would handle a situation where his or her manager assigned work with competing deadlines would be an example of which interview technique?

A) stress
B) behavioural
C) situational
D) nondirective
E) structured

Question 60

A serialized interview occurs when

A) a candidate's oral and/or computerized responses are obtained in response to computerized oral and written questions.
B) a panel simultaneously interviews several candidates.
C) each interviewer rates the candidate on a standard evaluation form and the ratings are compared before the hiring decision is made.
D) each interviewee only attends one interview.
E) each interviewer evaluates the applicant from his or her own point of view.

Question 61

Complicating the entire issue of substance abuse testing are the protections under human rights codes in Canada.

Question 62

Hints for conducting an effective panel interview include all of the following except

A) plan the interview.
B) evaluate the candidate.
C) build rapport.
D) listen carefully rather than taking notes.
E) ask questions.

Question 63

The hiring manager asked a candidate how he has conducted a performance appraisal interview for an underperforming report in the past.This is an example of a behavioural interview question.

Question 64

According to the 30/70 rule,

A) interviewees should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
B) interviewers should speak 70 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 30 percent of the time.
C) interviewers should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
D) the interview should be structured to begin with 30 minutes of questions from the interviewer followed by 70 minutes of questions from the interviewee.
E) interviewers should speak 30 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 70 percent of the time.

Question 65

Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection instrument, such as a test, samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform the job.

Question 66

Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicant's rating.

A) 60
B) 50
C) 80
D) 70
E) 40

Question 67

Toward the end of the interview, time should be allotted to do all of the following except

A) advocate for the firm, if appropriate.
B) politely advise a candidate if it has been determined that he or she will not be given further consideration.
C) advocate for the position, if appropriate.
D) thank the interviewee.
E) answer any questions the candidate may have.

Question 68

The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid predictors and weighting them through statistical methods, such as multiple regression, is called

A) multiple-evaluation approach.
B) statistical strategy.
C) multiple-hurdle strategy.
D) benchmark approach.
E) clinical strategy.

Question 69

All of the following statements pertaining to the final steps in the selection process are true except that

A) the initial offer is made by telephone.
B) the immediate supervisor generally handles the offer of employment.
C) candidates should be given a reasonable length of time to think over the job offer.
D) a written offer of employment should always be extended.
E) the offer specifies the starting salary.

Question 70

Management assessment centres include activities and exercises that involve interviews and individual presentations.

Question 71

The best strategy for creating appropriate expectations about the job is

A) providing a realistic job preview.
B) using realistic testing.
C) providing an in-depth interview.
D) giving each applicant a copy of the job description.
E) using simulations.

Question 72

Reliability is the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it purports to measure.

Question 73

IQ tests are tests that measure a single "intelligence" trait.

Question 74

There are legal implications associated with ineffective or incompetent selection.

Question 75

Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing reference information is true except

A) failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits.
B) as long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally protected.
C) many companies are adopting a "no reference" policy.
D) the defence of "qualified privilege" protects reference givers, regardless of the circumstances.
E) even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the reference giver is legally protected.

Question 76

Suggestions to ensure that questioning is effective include all of the following except

A) prepare questions in advance.
B) listen to the candidate and encourage the full expression of his or her thoughts.
C) interrogate the applicant.
D) ask questions in order.
E) record the candidate's answers briefly but thoroughly.

Question 77

Research has shown that those rated as more physically attractive than other candidates are also rated as

A) equally suitable for employment.
B) suitable for temporary employment.
C) unsuitable for employment.
D) more suitable for employment.
E) less suitable for employment.

Question 78

In many instances, a small selection ratio also means a low quality of recruits.

Question 79

The immediate supervisor is generally responsible for making the final selection decision.Reasons for this include all of the following except that

A) he or she is generally best qualified to assess job knowledge and skills.
B) he or she is often highly skilled in the selection process.
C) it is important that the individual selected fits in with current department members.
D) if he or she is not committed to the selected individual, that person can easily be set up for failure.
E) he or she must provide guidance and assistance to the new hire.

Question 80

Intelligence, verbal skills, analytical ability, and leadership skills are examples of constructs.