Deck 6: Systems and Database Design

Question 1

Systems development projects can involve risks associated with

A) incompatibility between the existing IT infrastructure and the system being developed.
B) inadequate design or testing resulting in a final product that functions poorly.
C) insufficient end-user training that yields poor adoption of the new system.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer 1

All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 2

The systems development life cycle (SDLC)

A) is a project management framework with stages for creating and deploying new systems.
B) includes six stages that cover pre-implementation, build, and go-live and beyond.
C) provides a standardized process that organizations should use as specified for positive results.
D) focuses on the design and development of a new system and which is completed when the system is implemented.

Answer 2

is a project management framework with stages for creating and deploying new systems.

Question 3

The first stage of a SDLC is the

A) planning stage.
B) analysis stage.
C) design stage.
D) development stage.

Answer 3

planning stage.

Question 4

What is the term associated with a mockup of the screen that will allow users to interact with the system?

A) Systems model
B) Conceptual design
C) Graphical user interface
D) Architecture model

Question 5

The new system moves to production and goes live for company use in the

A) development stage.
B) implementation stage.
C) design stage.
D) maintenance stage.

Question 6

The planning stage of the SDLC includes

A) creating a project plan.
B) a feasibility study.
C) identifying necessary resources.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 7

During the planning phase, a project plan is created that

A) determines system requirements.
B) analyzes the economic factors that will impact the project.
C) decides whether to build or buy the system.
D) identifies the scope of the system and project goals.

Question 8

Which role in the SDLC includes representatives from multiple business areas and is responsible for approval and prioritization of projects?

A) IT steering committee
B) End users
C) Lead systems analyst
D) Core application programmers

Question 9

Which role in the SDLC is responsible for developing the plan for a systems' functionality and logic?

A) IT steering committee
B) End users
C) Lead systems analyst
D) Core application programmers

Question 10

Which role in the SDLC is responsible for identifying business needs and proposing systems to address those needs?

A) IT steering committee
B) End users
C) Lead systems analyst
D) Core application programmers

Question 11

What step in the planning phase occurs to determine if the proposed project is realistic?

A) Project plan
B) Project scope
C) Feasibility study
D) Technical study

Question 12

During the analysis stage of the SDLC, business requirements for a project are determined by

A) the IT steering committee reviewing the feasibility study.
B) systems analysts meeting with end users.
C) the lead system analyst reviewing the project plan.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 13

Amar is a new systems analyst with Ally Corporation. Amar is tasked with reviewing a requirements definition document for Ally. Which of the following should Amar suggest that Ally should have dealt with before creating the requirements definition?

A) Documentation of the final project goal
B) Steps needed to achieve the project goal
C) An outline of the overall system plan
D) Risk and reward list for cloud-based versus local system

Question 14

The requirements definition that is completed in the analysis stage of the SDLC gets translated during the design stage into

A) a systems model.
B) a data flow diagram.
C) technical specifications.
D) a project flow chart.

Question 15

Davidson Equipment Company is working through the SDLC framework in an effort to successfully build and implement a new parts inventory system. Davidson is unsure what technology will be needed for the system. What element in the design stage needs to be completed to resolve this issue for Davidson?

A) Conceptual design
B) Technical architecture specifications
C) Systems model
D) Graphical user interface

Question 16

Davidson Equipment Company is working through the SDLC framework in an effort to successfully build and implement a new parts inventory system. Davidson is concerned about how the parts inventory system will work with the existing sales system. What element in the design stage needs to be completed to resolve this issue for Davidson?

A) Conceptual design
B) Technical architecture specifications
C) Systems model
D) Graphical user interface

Question 17

At what stage in the SDLC are programmers responsible for testing code?

A) Development stage
B) Testing stage
C) Design stage
D) Analysis stage

Question 18

Why is it important for future accountants to study the SDLC?

A) The CPA exam reflects the increased expectations that accounting professionals understand technology.
B) Accountants, as end users of accounting systems, often participate in determining requirements for projects.
C) Accountants who progress in their career to a director level or higher will see and work with departments throughout the organization, including technology.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 19

Testers evaluate systems to ensure that

A) the system meets requirements.
B) the systems work together.
C) the systems accomplish their purpose.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 20

Dana invites a few customers to test the new parts system at Davidson Equipment. The customers are given a list of tasks to complete on the new system. Observing the testing process and results allows Dana to verify that the system meets the expectations of the customers. What kind of testing did Dana implement?

A) Systems model testing
B) User acceptance testing
C) User verified testing
D) Systems congruence testing

Question 21

Which implementation method moderates risk by implementing a new system with only a small group of users before going live for the entire company?

A) Direct cutover
B) Parallel implementation
C) Phased implementation
D) Pilot implementation

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the Waterfall systems development methodology are TRUE?

A) The Waterfall method must be executed in a linear fashion with each step overlapping the next.
B) The Waterfall method uses the seven stages of the SDLC framework and is not customizable.
C) Each stage in the Waterfall method is completed before continuing to the next stage.
D) The first stage in the Waterfall method is planning; the final stage is implementation.

Question 23

Why have other development methodologies increased in popularity over the Waterfall method in recent years?

A) The linear nature of the Waterfall method makes it difficult to respond to risks and changes.
B) Companies tend to avoid traditional methods in favor of newer methodologies.
C) Waterfall is ineffective as a SDLC methodology and was only used in the past because it was the only option.
D) Waterfall is ineffective because it cannot be customized for the specific project.

Question 24

Risk is created using the Waterfall method when developers do NOT receive feedback until project completion because of

A) changes in user expectations.
B) changes in requirements.
C) changes in business processes.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 25

Which of the following statements concerning the Agile systems development methodology is TRUE?

A) Agile involves end-users throughout the SDLC.
B) Agile utilizes an iterative development process.
C) Agile employs multiple short cycles of work.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 26

Josh is a leader on the new Smart Technology software project. Josh decided on Agile as the systems development methodology of choice for the project. At which stage in the SDLC should Josh include end users?

A) Analysis
B) Design
C) Testing
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 27

A focus of the Agile software development methodology is

A) encouraging collaboration between stakeholders and programmers.
B) using strong leaders on teams.
C) creating well-defined requirements that do not need changes during development.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 28

What is the most popular project management style for implementing Agile methodology?

A) Waterfall
B) SDLC
C) Scrum
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about scrum is TRUE?

A) Scrum is a set of project management practices that focus on long-term planning.
B) Scrum breaks down a systems development project into short cycles of work.
C) Scrum development teams are led by the business product owner.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 30

What is a scrum master?

A) Champion of the core development team
B) Someone who clears obstacles from the core team's path
C) Someone who ensures focus on Agile principles
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 31

Which of the following statements about scrum timeboxing is correct?

A) Everything is subject to change in an Agile project except the timeboxing.
B) Timeboxing includes the use of sprints to complete multiple iterations on a single SDLC stage in two weeks.
C) Timeboxing prevents scope creep by not addressing end-user suggestions until the end of the SDLC.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about scrum sprints is TRUE?

A) Sprints are single iterations of the systems project.
B) Sprints may include multiple SDLC stages.
C) Sprints are often two weeks long.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 33

The term associated with a project that evolves during development beyond the original specifications is

A) timeboxing.
B) sprint.
C) scope creep.
D) artifact.

Question 34

Adrian, a scrum master for the company's new project, receives suggestions for features from end users. Which scrum artifact is the appropriate place for Adrian to log the end-user feature requests?

A) Product backlog
B) Sprint backlog
C) Product increment
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 35

Adrian, a scrum master for the company's new project, organized product features by priority and has assembled the list of what the core development team will work on during the next iteration. What scrum artifact is the appropriate item for this list of current tasks for the development team?

A) Product backlog
B) Sprint backlog
C) Product increment
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 36

At the end of the current sprint, Astrid, the product owner, will seek feedback by presenting which scrum artifact to the end users?

A) Product backlog
B) Spring backlog
C) Product increment
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 37

Azle Corporation has a new software development project and is evaluating methodologies to determine the best fit for their current situation. Azle employees are currently working from home with some in remote areas with little Internet access. The project has clearly defined requirements and a firm budget. Which software development methodology would you recommend to Azle?

A) Waterfall
B) Agile
C) Scrum
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 38

Which relational database term is associated with a group of related fields that describe an individual instance of an entity?

A) Field name
B) Record
C) File
D) Database

Question 39

Which relational database term is synonymous with file and is a group of records for a specific entity?

A) Field name
B) Record
C) Table
D) Database

Question 40

In the diagram below, the shaded row represents a $\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|l|}\hline \text{FirstName} & \text{MiddleInitial} &\text{ LastName }&\text{ Birthdate} & \text{PhoneNumber} \\\hline\text{ Willie }&\mathrm{H} & \text{Nelson} &\text{ April 29, 1933} & 123-456-7890 \\\hline\text{ Waylon }&\text{ A }&\text{ Jennings} & \text{June 15, 1937 }& 987-654-3210 \\\hline\end{array}$

A) field.
B) record.
C) column.
D) file.

Question 41

Which type of database stores structured data in two-dimensional tables?

A) Relational
B) Object-oriented
C) NoSQL
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 42

In a relational database, data is stored in tables of related data. The database for Motorcycle Parts Warehouse has the following tables: Items, Employees, Sales, and Customers. Into which table would you insert a field to store the delivery address used to ship a customer their order?

A) Items
B) Employees
C) Sales
D) Customers

Question 43

An advantage that object-oriented databases have over relational databases are

A) that the two-dimensional structure is easy to understand.
B) the ability to store both structured and unstructured data.
C) its wide adoption for accounting systems.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 44

Object-oriented databases group similar objects together in a

A) class.
B) record.
C) variable.
D) file.

Question 45

Attributes of an object in an object-oriented database are referred to as

A) classes.
B) records.
C) variables.
D) files.

Question 46

NoSQL databases store data

A) individually with key-values.
B) in rows and columns.
C) in classes.
D) in schemas.

Question 47

What advantages does a NoSQL database have over an object-oriented and relational database?

A) NoSQL databases store data in objects that can handle the high velocity of big data generated.
B) NoSQL databases allow for faster processing and flexible storage for big, unstructured data.
C) NoSQL databases allow for faster processing of unstructured data by using rows and columns to quickly locate data.
D) NoSQL databases store data using key-values to categorize into classes and objects for speed of retrieval.

Question 48

Campbell Marketing Solutions (CMS) has grown in the past few years and is considering upgrading their current database management system. The data that CMS would like to store in the new database includes social media posts, photographs, and videos, though the type of data seems to continually change. CMS knows that they will need to scale often and retrieve large amounts of various data. Which kind of database should CMS use?

A) Relational
B) Object-oriented
C) NoSQL
D) Any of these database models could work for CMS.

Question 49

Tables in a relational database must be connected in a meaningful order to allow for the retrieval of information. The design process for a database is referred to as

A) database diagraming.
B) entity modeling.
C) data modeling.
D) entity diagramming.

Question 50

The first step in data modeling is to identify the entities or tables that the database will need to capture in a

A) conceptual ERD.
B) logical ERD.
C) physical ERD.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 51

How do database designers identify the connections between entities?

A) Database designers consult with end users to understand how data is used.
B) Database designers analyze business events.
C) Database designers write statements of relationships based on business events.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 52

Alice, a recent IT graduate, working in the database department is tasked with implementing the newly designed database for the company. Which type of ERD does Alice need to complete the task of database implementation?

A) Conceptual ERD
B) Logical ERD
C) Physical ERD
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 53

Alfred took the conceptual ERD that Alice created and added field names for each table. Alfred's work resulted in a

A) physical ERD.
B) logical ERD.
C) conceptual ERD.
D) database ERD.

Question 54

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Data redundancy occurs when the same piece of data is stored in more than one place.
B) Data redundancy could result in data integrity issues.
C) Relational databases use unique IDs and relationships to eliminate data redundancy.
D) Relational databases use cardinality and business rules to eliminate data redundancy.

Question 55

Data integrity involves

A) managing data accuracy in a database.
B) managing consistency of data in a database.
C) ensuring management receives quality information for decision making from a database.
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 56

Relational databases are designed to reduce redundancy by

A) not allowing more than 5 fields per table.
B) ensuring that the primary key is not null.
C) referencing needed data already stored in a different table.
D) storing duplicate data in foreign keys.

Question 57

The unique IDs that identify every record in a relational database are referred to as

A) keys.
B) data.
C) cardinals.
D) nulls.

Question 58

The unique ID for a table is the

A) primary key.
B) foreign key.
C) referential integrity.
D) entity integrity.

Question 59

When a primary key is inserted into another table to create a relationship, the key in the related table is referred to as a

A) primary key.
B) foreign key.
C) relationship key.
D) unique key.

Question 60

Referential integrity states that

A) the primary key cannot be null.
B) a foreign key cannot be inserted into a table unless it already exists as a primary key.
C) relational databases must reduce redundancy.
D) relational databases must manage data integrity, accuracy, and consistency.

Question 61

Entity integrity requires that the

A) foreign key exists as a primary key in the related table.
B) primary key exists as a foreign key in the related table.
C) primary key cannot be null.
D) primary key cannot be unique.

Question 62

Select the term that refers to the numeric relationship between data in one table and data in another table.

A) Primary key
B) Foreign key
C) Referential integrity
D) Cardinality

Question 63

Which kind of cardinality constraint identifies whether the relationship is optional or mandatory?

A) Plurality
B) Optionality
C) Referentiality
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 64

Which cardinality type is represented by this crow's foot cardinality notation?

A) One and only one
B) No more than one
C) At least one
D) Any

Question 65

Which cardinality type is represented by this crow's foot cardinality notation?

A) One and only one
B) No more than one
C) At least one
D) Any

Question 66

Julian is designing the physical ERD for a new database. What element must Julian include?

A) Tables
B) Relationships
C) Keys
D) All of these answer choices are correct.

Question 67

Which type of SQL language changes the structure of the database?

A) Data definition language
B) Data manipulation language
C) Data control language
D) Data querying language

Question 68

Which type of SQL language grants or removes access from a database user?

A) Data definition language
B) Data manipulation language
C) Data control language
D) Data querying language

Question 69

Which type of SQL language interacts with data manipulation language when transactions are processed within the database and saved or undoes pending transactions?

A) Data definition language
B) Data manipulation language
C) Data control language
D) Transaction control language

Question 70

Dikshya writes a SELECT command to retrieve data from the database. Which type of SQL language is Dikshya using?

A) Data definition language
B) Data manipulation language
C) Data control language
D) Data querying language

Question 71

You need to write a command to update the price in the products table. Which type of SQL language do you need to use?

A) Data definition language
B) Data manipulation language
C) Data control language
D) Data querying language

Question 72

You need to write a command to retrieve all the records in the Products table. Which of the following syntax is the correct command?

A) SELECT all FROM Products
B) SELECT * FROM Products
C) RETRIEVE all FROM Products
D) RETRIEVE * FROM Products

Question 73

You need to write an SQL query to retrieve CustomerFirstName, CustomerLastName, and CustomerEmailAddress from the Customer table for all customers who list "OK" as their state (field name for state is CustomerState). Which SQL statement will yield the results that you need?

A) SELECT CustomerFirstName, CustomerLastName, CustomerEmailAddress FROM Customer
WHEN CustomerState IS 'OK'
B) SELECT CustomerFirstName, CustomerLastName, CustomerEmailAddress FROM Customer
WHEN CustomerState = 'OK'
C) SELECT CustomerFirstName, CustomerLastName, CustomerEmailAddress FROM Customer
WHERE CustomerState = 'OK'
D) SELECT CustomerFirstName, CustomerLastName, CustomerEmailAddress FROM Customer
WHERE CustomerState IS 'OK'

Question 74

You need to write a query to retrieve all customer information (table is 'Customer') for customers who do NOT live in Texas ('TX'). Which of the following SQL statements will work for your query?

A) SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE State <> 'TX'
B) SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE State not = 'TX'
C) SELECT all FROM Customer WHERE State <> 'TX'
D) SELECT all FROM Customer WHERE State not = 'TX'

Question 75

You need to write a query to retrieve all customer information (table is 'Customer') for customers who do NOT live in Texas ('TX') and the payment method (field is 'PaymentMethod') is American Express ('AMEX'). Which of the following SQL statements will work for your query?

A) SELECT all FROM Customer WHERE State <> 'TX' and PaymentMethod = 'AMEX'
B) SELECT all FROM Customer WHERE State not = 'TX' and PaymentMethod = 'AMEX'
C) SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE State <> 'TX' and PaymentMethod = 'AMEX'
D) SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE State not = 'TX' and PaymentMethod = 'AMEX'

Question 76

What type of operator allows a SELECT query to retrieve data from more than one related table in the database in one query?

A) ALTER
B) JOIN
C) TRUNCATE
D) WHERE

Question 77

Which type of JOIN operation retrieves record data with a join column value present only in the first table of the join and the results of the inner join?

A) Inner join
B) Left outer join
C) Right outer join
D) Full outer join

Question 78

The diagram shown is a visual representation of which type of join?

A) Inner join
B) Left outer join
C) Right outer join
D) Full outer join

Question 79

The diagram shown is a visual representation of which type of join?

A) Inner join
B) Left outer join
C) Right outer join
D) Full outer join

Question 80

A simple event database that tracks acts and the events where they perform has an ERD as illustrated. There are acts entered into the database that have not yet performed at any events. If a left outer join were performed to select all data from each table, what values would be displayed for the event fields for acts who have not yet performed at an event.

A) SELECT
B) NULL
C) The fields would be blank.
D) There can be no empty fields.