Deck 10: Groups and Intergroup Processes

Question 1

Which of the following is not characteristic of groups in organizations?

A) Groups can have good and bad effects on people and organizations.
B) A group is a collection of people doing a task or reaching a goal.
C) Group members regularly interact and depend on each other to do their tasks.
D) Job and organizational design does not affect the degree of mutual dependence.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following statements is false about characteristics of functional groups?

A) They are formed by the design of the organization.
B) They are relatively permanent.
C) They do not change when the organization changes its structure.
D) They are a product of the division of labor in an organization.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of a task group?

A) The human resources department.
B) A department of software support technicians.
C) A product division.
D) A cross-functional committee that plans the yearly company picnic.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following is true about self-managing teams and electronic groups?

A) Electronic groups and self-managing teams are emerging types of formal groups.
B) Self-managing teams typically have high internal autonomy and decision authority about work scheduling, team member assignments, and the choice of a team leader.
C) Networked computers and workstations link members of electronic groups.
D) All answers are true statements about self-managing teams and electronic groups.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Compliance means group members conform because their values are congruent with group norms.
B) Group norms usually do not include the performance levels expected by group members.
C) Cohesive groups tend to perform better than noncohesive groups, especially if the groups are large.
D) Emergent behaviors develop from interactions with group members.

Question 6

Which of the following is a correct statement about groups in organizations?

A) The personal acceptance type of conformity means an individual's beliefs and attitudes are congruent with group norms.
B) Required behavior is what a person must do as part of the person's role in the formal group.
C) Emergent behavior grows out of group member interactions.
D) All answers are correct statements about groups in organizations.

Question 7

Which of the following are functions of groups in organizations?

A) A source of member rewards.
B) A source of socialization.
C) Support group members, especially in hazardous work.
D) Each answer describes a function of groups in organizations.

Question 8

Which of the following is a false statement about cohesive groups with norms supportive of management?

A) The cooperative behavior of cohesive group members helps them complete interdependent tasks.
B) Control over individual behavior in cohesive groups is less immediate than management controls.
C) A cohesive group can produce innovative work behavior that has value for the organization.
D) Cohesive groups are self-policing and can stamp out deviant behavior.

Question 9

Dysfunctional consequences of groups include which of the following?

A) Groups can give people a degree of anonymity that causes some people to behave in atypical ways.
B) Cohesive group members often experience some loss of individual identity.
C) Because no one takes responsibility for a bad decision, people in groups can escape accountability for their behavior.
D) All answers describe a dysfunctional consequence of groups.

Question 10

People who perceive their effort in a group as unimportant or not easily seen by others may engage in

A) Groupthink.
B) The sucker effect.
C) Social loafing.
D) No answers are correct.

Question 11

Which of the following is a dysfunction that occurs in electronic groups?

A) The lack of face-to-face contact reduces communication information.
B) The lack of emotional content to communication can reduce the effects of minority group members.
C) Electronic groups can take longer to reach a decision than other types of groups.
D) Each answer describes a dysfunction of electronic groups.

Question 12

Groups that strive for consensus at the risk of sacrificing decision quality are experiencing

A) Free riding.
B) Groupthink.
C) Social loafing.
D) The sucker effect.

Question 13

Which of the following is not a dysfunctional consequence of groups?

A) Cohesive groups can closely monitor member behavior to ensure compliance with the group's norm.
B) The amount of control a cohesive group has over its members usually does not exceed the control of individual managers or supervisors.
C) Cohesive groups can put strong pressure on members to conform to group norms, which can lead to high levels of uniformity of group member behavior.
D) The almost continual interaction among group members keeps them under the watchful "eye of the norm."

Question 14

Which of the following is interaction?

A) E-mail conversations.
B) Telephone conversations.
C) Written communication.
D) Each answer gives an interaction.

Question 15

Which of the following concept definitions from the model of cohesive group formation is true?

A) Activities are the formal organizational requirements, such as job duties and responsibilities.
B) Sentiments are attitudes, beliefs, and feelings about the person or persons with whom an individual interacts.
C) Interaction refers to social interaction between two or more people. The interaction can be face to face with two people talking to each other or electronic interaction such as over the World Wide Web (WWW).
D) All the concept definitions are true.

Question 16

Which of the following statements is false about organizational factors that affect cohesive group formation?

A) If people are physically close together, the potential for social interaction is high. If they are widely separated, the potential is low (proximity factor).
B) Job activities requiring interaction among workers increase the potential of cohesive group formation.
C) A job that does not require close attention lets the worker interact with other nearby workers.
D) Absenteeism and turnover within a formal group have little effect on social interaction.

Question 17

Which of the following correctly shows the links between interactions, sentiments, and activities?

A) Interactions→sentiments→activities.
B) Activities→interactions→sentiments.
C) Activities→sentiments→interactions.
D) Interactions→activities→sentiments.

Question 18

Which of the following will restrict social interaction?

A) Low noise level.
B) Low absence.
C) Complete job descriptions.
D) Close proximity.

Question 19

Which of the following helps social interaction?

A) High noise level.
B) Low degree of attention required by work.
C) High turnover.
D) Physical barriers.

Question 20

All the following help social interaction except

A) Not being physically tied to a work area.
B) Little physical isolation.
C) Free time at work.
D) Work requires a high degree of attention.

Question 21

All the following restrict social interaction except

A) The distance between people.
B) Thorough job descriptions.
C) Low absence.
D) High noise level.

Question 22

Similarities in which of the following characteristics affect people's attraction to each other?

A) Age.
B) Social status.
C) Attitudes.
D) All answers are correct.

Question 23

Factors allowing and restricting social interaction affect cohesive group formation between which of the following parts of the group formation model?

A) Activities→interactions.
B) Interactions→sentiments.
C) Interactions→activities.
D) Activities→sentiments.

Question 24

Bases of attraction affect cohesive group formation between which of the following parts of the model of cohesive group formation?

A) Activities→interactions.
B) Sentiments→cohesive group.
C) Interactions→sentiments.
D) Interactions→cohesive group.

Question 25

The correct sequence in the model of cohesive group formation is

A) Activities, sentiments, cohesive group, interactions, and group norms.
B) Activities, interactions, sentiments, cohesive group, and group norms.
C) Interactions, sentiments, cohesive group, activities, and group norms.
D) Activities, group norms, sentiments, interactions, and cohesive group.

Question 26

A professor's research activities often require getting information from a research librarian. This example illustrates which of the following links in the model of group formation?

A) Interactions→sentiments.
B) Interactions→group norms.
C) Activities→interactions.
D) Activities→sentiments.

Question 27

In the process of getting information from the research librarian, a college professor decides that he does not care for the librarian because their perspectives differ greatly. This example shows which of the following links in the model of cohesive group formation?

A) Interactions→sentiments.
B) Activities→interactions.
C) Activities→sentiments.
D) Sentiments→group norms.

Question 28

In the stages of group development, the correct sequence of stages is

A) Group formation, group cohesion, task orientation, intragroup conflict, and termination.
B) Group formation, task orientation, intragroup conflict, group cohesion, and termination.
C) Group formation, intragroup conflict, group cohesion, task orientation, and termination.
D) Group formation, task orientation, group cohesion, intragroup conflict, and termination.

Question 29

The stage of group development characterized by a discussion of social roles and the emergence of group leadership is

A) Group formation.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Intragroup conflict.

Question 30

The stage of group development characterized by well-defined roles and relationships and task-focused conflict is

A) Development phase.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Intragroup conflict.

Question 31

The stage of group development characterized by acceptance of group norms and a well-defined division of labor is

A) Group formation.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Intragroup conflict.

Question 32

The stage of group development characterized by the definition of social and task boundaries is

A) Group formation.
B) Orientation phase.
C) Task orientation.
D) Intragroup conflict.

Question 33

New group members who are entering an existing cohesive group experience the socialization process at which stage of group development?

A) Intragroup conflict.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Group formation.

Question 34

Conflict that focuses primarily on different ways of doing the group's task is found in which stage of group development?

A) Intragroup conflict.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Group formation.

Question 35

Conflict that focuses primarily on the group's social structure occurs in which stage of group development?

A) Intragroup conflict.
B) Group cohesion.
C) Task orientation.
D) Group formation.

Question 36

When a task force created to generate suggestions on how to reduce health care costs has submitted its suggestions to management, the group is likely in which stage of group development?

A) Group cohesion.
B) Termination.
C) Group formation.
D) Intragroup conflict.

Question 37

The types of roles that focus on behavioral processes within the group with the intent of reaching the group's goals are

A) Task roles.
B) Maintenance roles.
C) Individual roles.
D) No answers are correct.

Question 38

Which of the following is not a dimension of group social structure?

A) The physical environment.
B) Communication network.
C) Patterns of influence in the group.
D) Relationships among group members' roles.

Question 39

The group maintenance role in which a group member referees conflict among group members is the

A) Encourager.
B) Gatekeeper.
C) Harmonizer.
D) Follower.

Question 40

The group roles of aggressor, blocker, and joker are

A) Individual roles.
B) Maintenance roles.
C) Task roles.
D) Social roles.

Question 41

The group roles of follower, gatekeeper, and encourager are

A) Individual roles.
B) Maintenance roles.
C) Task roles.
D) Social roles.

Question 42

The group roles of elaborator, coordinator, and initiator are

A) Individual roles.
B) Maintenance roles.
C) Task roles.
D) Social roles.

Question 43

Which of the following is a factor that affects group effectiveness?

A) The physical environment.
B) Group member compatibility.
C) Group size.
D) Each answer is a factor.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is true about group size?

A) Satisfaction with group activities increases as size increases.
B) Participation of members drops as size increases.
C) A leader more likely emerges as group size decreases.
D) Large groups make communication in groups easier.

Question 45

Which of the following is not a virtual group characteristic?

A) The network linking virtual group members can be on an organization's intranet, on the Internet, or in a single room.
B) Software supports problem-solving and decision-making groups.
C) Wherever they are located, group members meet in real time (synchronous communication).
D) The system's goal is to support group processes and improve decision quality and effectiveness.

Question 46

Which of the following is a virtual group characteristic?

A) Some physical interaction can happen when a virtual group meets in a single room.
B) Group members can work at scattered locations and interact over a computer network.
C) Virtual groups form over the Internet at scattered locations anywhere in the world.
D) Each answer is a virtual group characteristic.

Question 47

Which of the following are virtual group technologies?

A) Process tools software.
B) Shared view.
C) Anonymous communication.
D) Each answer is a virtual group technology.

Question 48

Virtual groups present organizations and managers with which of the following challenges?

A) Reducing feelings of member isolation and detachment from the team.
B) Balancing interpersonal and technical skill requirements of team members.
C) Recognizing team and team member performance.
D) All answers are challenges of virtual groups or virtual teams.

Question 49

Organizations that use self-managing teams typically do which of the following?

A) Managers give the teams decision authority about product design, process design, and customer service.
B) Using self-managing teams lets managers flatten their organizations by removing a layer of management.
C) The organization can become more nimble and responsive to changes in its environment.
D) All answers are correct.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is false about self-managing teams?

A) The team is a group of people working on a set of interdependent tasks.
B) Team members do not manage most aspects of their work.
C) Managers should not use self-managing teams when people should work independently.
D) Some people want to work independently, so they should not be part of teams.

Question 51

Which of the following statements is true about team leaders in self-managing teams?

A) Some teams will not have an appointed leader. Leadership rotates among team members.
B) Some teams choose their leader without management approval.
C) Some teams have leaders appointed or approved by management.
D) Each answer is true.

Question 52

Which of the following statements is true about workgroup socialization?

A) A new member's entry into an existing group can affect its processes and structure.
B) The mutual adjustment and adaptation process is a distinguishing characteristic of workgroup socialization from organizational socialization.
C) Because workgroups are smaller than the organization to which they belong, newcomers come into closer contact with workgroup processes than organizational processes.
D) Each answer is true.

Question 53

Which of the following statements is false about workgroup socialization?

A) Forming a new group starts the process of socializing the entire group.
B) Workgroup socialization processes unfold in three related phases that are unrelated to those found in organizational socialization processes (Chapter 6).
C) A person can become part of the group's history, after the person leaves the group.
D) Forming a new group features complex interactions during a turbulent period of mutual adjustment.

Question 54

Which of the following statements is false about majority and minority (deviant) influences in groups?

A) Majority members bring alternative views to a decision faced by a group.
B) Majority group members can pressure minority members to conform to a group's position.
C) Majority members often view minority members negatively.
D) Minority members can have positive performance effects on a group.

Question 55

Minority (deviant) group members use which of the following methods to affect majority opinion?

A) Minority members persist in the position to which they are committed.
B) Minority members present confident statements of their positions.
C) Minority members time their statements for maximum effect.
D) Each answer describes a method of affecting majority opinion.

Question 56

Which of the following statements is false about the effects of workforce diversity on group development and functioning?

A) Diversity in workgroups can create high conflict potential.
B) Diverse groups can take longer to become cohesive.
C) Diverse groups do not develop more ideas than homogeneous groups.
D) Diversity can lead to distrust among members.

Question 57

Which of the follow is not an intergroup process characteristic?

A) Members of groups interact with each other, representing their group's interests.
B) Different orientations to tasks, time, and goals can lead to intergroup conflict.
C) People favor individuals from other groups more than people from their group.
D) Conflict management is a key part of managing intergroup processes.

Question 58

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Conformity usually is moderate for people from the United States.
B) Collectivistic cultures expect expression of conflict during intergroup interactions.
C) Group membership is an important part of intergroup interaction in collectivist cultures.
D) The Swedish are usually strong in rejecting people who deviate from social norms.

Question 59

Which of the following is true about the ethical issues raised by groups in organizations?

A) Managers are required to inform recruits about all cohesive groups in the organization.
B) Managers have an ethical duty to screen people for membership based on the strength of their social needs.
C) Managers should make membership on self-managing teams voluntary.
D) Each answer is true.

Question 60

Groups in organizations have few effects on people's behavior.

Question 61

Groups, group dynamics, and intergroup process are inevitable aspects of organizations and their management.

Question 62

People outside an organization can easily see its informal groups.

Question 63

Managers deliberately create informal groups.

Question 64

Informal groups can form both within and across the formal groups of an organization.

Question 65

Task groups usually disband after they finish their assignment.

Question 66

A cohesive group has members who find the group's task and prestige attractive.

Question 67

Cohesive groups tend to perform better than noncohesive groups, despite the group's size.

Question 68

Compliance is the most powerful type of conformity.

Question 69

Emergent behavior is usually not formally acknowledged by organizations.

Question 70

Personal acceptance is the type of conformity where a person's beliefs match a group's norms.

Question 71

Emergent behavior is what a person must do because of the person's role in a formal group.

Question 72

Cooperative behavior in a cohesive group helps members do interdependent tasks.

Question 73

Cohesive groups do not stamp out deviant behavior.

Question 74

Supporting group members doing hazardous work is not a function of groups in organizations.

Question 75

People have little loss of identity when they are members of cohesive groups.

Question 76

People can escape accountability for their behavior when they are members of cohesive groups.

Question 77

Close monitoring of behavior and almost continual interaction among group members keep them under the watchful "eye of the norm."

Question 78

The absence of nonverbal communication in many electronic groups can reduce the effect of minority positions on group results.

Question 79

The sucker effect occurs when a person perceives his or her effort in the group as unimportant.

Question 80

Activities in the model of cohesive group formation are the same as required behaviors.