Deck 14: Planning and Needs Assessment for Public Health Programs

Question 1

Planning is a basic skill in public health because it:

A) provides data for making funding decisions.
B) enables the equitable distribution of work across disciplines and departments.
C) underlies the 10 essential public health services.
D) requires community involvement in program development.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Access to health care services in the United States is a determinant of health dependent upon:

A) stable employment.
B) a designated primary health care provider.
C) health insurance coverage.
D) the absence of pre-existing conditions.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Theories are used as the foundation for program development because they:

A) explain why people do what they do and suggest ways to change it.
B) reduce the likelihood of resource mismanagement.
C) provide program structure.
D) streamline the process of developing goals and objectives.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

To change a behavior resulting from lack of knowledge, such as poor dietary choices, using a theory at which level of influence would be most appropriate?

A) Interpersonal
B) Intrapersonal
C) Societal
D) Community

Question 5

The concept of reciprocal determinism underlying Social Cognitive Theory is important to understand when using the theory as the basis for planning a program because:

A) when behavior is changed, the collateral effects need to be identified and addressed.
B) the reversibility of a behavior change determines the likelihood of change.
C) changing any one element governing behavior, changes them all.
D) behavior changes when the change is perceived as a reward that offsets punishment.

Question 6

When Protection Motivation Theory is used, which of the following is the basis of behavior change?

A) Networks
B) Knowledge
C) Intention
D) Fear

Question 7

If the unhealthy behavior identified in a needs assessment is not under volitional control, which of the following theories would be most appropriate to use as the basis for a program?

A) Social cognitive theory
B) Theory of Planned Behavior
C) Self-efficacy Theory
D) Social Capital Theory

Question 8

When Self-efficacy Theory is the foundation for behavior change, program activities may include all the following except:

A) opportunities to practice the desired behavior.
B) observations of others engaging in the desired behavior.
C) positive comments to support trying the desired behavior.
D) rewards for attempting the desired behavior.

Question 9

When the Social-ecological model is used as the basis for program development, it entails understanding:

A) how the interplay among factors at different levels of influence affect behavior.
B) when a clash is likely to occur between the forces at each level of influence.
C) who the thought leaders are within each level of influence.
D) what the best communication channel is for each level of influence.

Question 10

Using social capital as basis of program development requires recognition of:

A) the contribution relationship expectations and obligations make to behavior.
B) the importance of involving the intended audience in all aspects of planning.
C) the role political connectedness plays in gaining community buy-in for a program.
D) the difficulty of changing underlying societal norms contributing to a health problem.

Question 11

When forming a planning committee, it's important to do all the following except:

A) have a chairperson assigned by the planning organization.
B) include representatives from the intended audience.
C) select members based on their past affiliations with the planning organization.
D) involve people who would be indirectly affected by the program.

Question 12

Working with a planning committee has many advantages including all the following except:

A) shared expertise.
B) unilateral decision making.
C) idea generation.
D) access to networking opportunities.

Question 13

Using the information obtained from a needs assessment as the basis for program development reflects which of the following principles of planning?

A) Plan with people
B) Plan for priorities
C) Plan for measurable outcomes
D) Plan with a process

Question 14

When both quantitative and qualitative data are needed, which of the following methods could be used to collect both?

A) Surveys and interviews
B) Interviews and focus groups
C) Focus groups and observation
D) Observation and interviews

Question 15

Secondary data collection for a needs assessment entails:

A) gathering information that's readily available from existing sources.
B) collecting information directly from the people the program will impact.
C) identifying what's missing after primary data are analyzed.
D) conducting focus groups following survey data collected.

Question 16

The first task in conducting a needs assessment is to:

A) develop a questionnaire.
B) determine what data are missing.
C) conduct a literature review.
D) clarify the reason why it's being done.

Question 17

Data are collected from a representative sample of the population in a needs assessment when:

A) collecting data from the entire population is not feasible.
B) there is concern about response bias.
C) the population is vastly diverse and spread over a large geographic area.
D) secondary data are wanted.

Question 18

Using community based participatory research as the foundation for conducting a needs assessment:

A) reduces the cost of conducting focus groups.
B) ensures results are what community members perceive as the unmet needs.
C) eliminates political interference with the process.
D) hastens the data collection phase of the assessment.

Question 19

Which method of data collection would the planning committee use to generate the greatest response rate?

A) Focus group
B) Observation
C) Interview
D) Online survey

Question 20

When using a focus group to collect needs assessment data:

A) participant information and comments are collected anonymously.
B) participants sign a non-disclosure agreement.
C) the planning committee invites people to participate.
D) a minimum of 20 participants are needed.

Question 21

To increase the chances of questions on a data collection instrument being answered:

A) avoid using open-ended questions.
B) group demographic questions together at the beginning of the instrument.
C) ask for written comments.
D) include humorous questions to hold their interest.

Question 22

A reliable data collection instrument is one that:

A) was pilot tested within six months of use.
B) is used over again.
C) has been used by others.
D) collects the data it's meant to collect every time it's used.

Question 23

A valid data collection instrument is one that:

A) collects the data it's supposed to collect.
B) can legally be used.
C) is developed by the planning committee.
D) has been used on a similar population.

Question 24

All the following are guidelines for creating questions for a data collection instrument except:

A) keep the questions short and to the point.
B) explain ambiguous terms.
C) focus on one issue per question.
D) use words to elicit a specific response.

Question 25

Needs assessment questionnaires should contain all the following except:

A) instructions for completing the form.
B) an introductory paragraph that explains the questionnaire's purpose.
C) contact information for the questionnaire developer.
D) explanation about the confidentiality or anonymity of the data.

Question 26

When writing objectives, all the following are included except:

A) when the change is expected.
B) how much of a change is expected.
C) in whom the change is expected.
D) what barrier to change is expected.

Question 27

The planning committee creates which of the following to manage and monitor the flow of the program?

A) Timeline and logic model
B) Budget and task table
C) Rationale and program plan
D) Responsibility chart and expense account

Question 28

Replicating an evidence-based program to address a health issue is preferable to creating a new program because an evidence-based program:

A) has proven effectiveness.
B) is less costly to scale-up.
C) includes access to funding sources.
D) requires less time to implement.

Question 29

When developing program strategies, attention is given to making sure they do all the following except:

A) enable the goals and objectives to be met.
B) align with resources.
C) reach the intended audience.
D) increase self-efficacy.

Question 30

In response to a request for a program justification, which of the following is most appropriate?

A) Program plan
B) Logic model
C) A rationale
D) An income/expense spreadsheet

Question 31

The SMOG readability method is based on:

A) the polysyllabic word count in 10 sentences at the beginning, middle, and end of a document.
B) the frequency of conjunction use in the document.
C) the number of compound sentences in the first, middle, and last paragraphs of a document.
D) the consistency of verb tense throughout the document.

Question 32

When implementing an evidence-based program:

A) adjustments or adaptations are not needed.
B) specific protocols are developed to meet the needs of the intended audience.
C) all activities are delivered as they were in the research setting.
D) unique features from implementation in the research setting are eliminated.

Question 33

To avoid having issues arise from poor contextual fit, all the following are recommended except:

A) confirm that the program meets a need or solves a problem.
B) use personnel, time, and materials efficiently.
C) ensure the resources needed match those available.
D) mitigate discrepancies between location accessibility and desirability.

Question 34

When an evidence-based program is scaled, the purpose is to:

A) reach more people.
B) ensure it's in line with available resources.
C) weigh its pros and cons.
D) assess the extent of community buy-in.

Question 35

Before scaling an evidence-based program, the most important factor for the planning committee to know is its:

A) likely reach.
B) contextual fit.
C) effectiveness.
D) feasibility.

Question 36

A scalable program has all the following characteristics except:

A) known efficacy.
B) ability to reach intended audience.
C) minimal resource needs.
D) alignment with delivery organization priorities.

Question 37

If the intention of the planning committee is to implement a program about substance abuse prevention to parents of middle-school students attending the October PTA meeting, what type of sampling would this be?

A) Convenience sampling
B) Random sampling
C) Chance sampling
D) Quota sampling

Question 38

The size of a sample is:

A) irrelevant when random sampling is used.
B) determined by the type of data to be collected.
C) limited by the method used to collect data.
D) key to the accuracy of the evaluation results.

Question 39

In order to validate that changes in program participants resulted from the program and did not happen by chance, the planning committee would:

A) conduct summative evaluations.
B) use an experimental design.
C) employ self-selection to establish the participant sample.
D) record program sessions.

Question 40

The planning committee is limited to using a pre-test/posttest evaluation design when:

A) participation is voluntary.
B) a control group is not created.
C) the total population is less than 100.
D) the program consists of only one session.

Question 41

In programs using Diffusion of Innovation as the basis for behavior change, adoption of the new behavior is more likely to occur if people can try it out before committing to it.

Question 42

Planning committee meetings are best held face to face when possible because they allow for more effective discussions and relationship building.

Question 43

When developing program strategies, creating one tailored strategy for addressing an issue is far more effective than using multiple strategies.

Question 44

The last section of an evaluation report is the executive summary, which is a synopsis of the data and the conclusions drawn from it written by the director of the delivery organization.

Question 45

In addition to developing an evaluation plan, an evaluation timeline is also developed to keep the evaluation on track.

Question 46

To ensure the evaluation is conducted according to the requirements of the design selected, an evaluation plan is developed immediately after full program implementation.

Question 47

In addition to providing evidence of program effectiveness, evaluation results are also used to inform policy decisions.

Question 48

A process evaluation is used to keep the planning committee abreast of program implementation efforts.

Question 49

If mixed methods are used for data collection, qualitative data should be collected first to compensate for the time it takes to analyze this type of data.

Question 50

Although education is clearly linked to health, programs that focus on increasing knowledge alone do not always lead to better health. Why?

Question 51

Using the PRECEDE-PROCEED framework necessitates accepting all the following assumptions except:

A) health is a community issue.
B) healthy behaviors are voluntarily adopted.
C) health determines quality of life.
D) health is more than physical well-being and the absence of disease.

Question 52

The aim of the first phase of the PRECEDE-PROCEED model is to:

A) identify what the community sees as its social problem.
B) determine the community's vision of its future.
C) establish a coalition to oversee the needs assessment process.
D) appraise prior efforts to address the community's health problems.

Question 53

In phase 2 of the PRECEDE-PROCEED model, completing the epidemiological assessment provides the planning committee with:

A) morbidity and mortality data associated with the health problem.
B) a set of factors that influence accomplishing the desired outcome.
C) information about the extent of disease risk.
D) an assessment of community readiness for change.

Question 54

Upon completion of the PRECEDE portion of the PRECEDE-PROCEED model, the planning committee:

A) conducts an impact evaluation.
B) establishes a coalition to gain support for the program.
C) creates action teams.
D) implements the program plan.

Question 55

It's during the PROCEED portion of the PRECEDE-PROCEED MODEL that all the following are addressed except:

A) implementation fidelity.
B) process evaluation.
C) control group formation.
D) impact and outcome evaluation.

Question 56

If the aim is to have widespread representation and participation of diverse local public health entities in the planning process, the most appropriate planning framework to use is:

A) Intervention mapping.
B) MAPP.
C) PRECEDE-PROCEED.
D) MAP-IT.

Question 57

When using the MAPP planning framework, community members seeing themselves in the future and developing community values, which are important inspirations for working together, are reflected in the:

A) vision statement.
B) core group's bylaws.
C) program mission statement.
D) Forces of Change summary.

Question 58

The Community Themes and Strength Assessment of a MAPP process is done to:

A) uncover weaknesses and gaps in the community's health services.
B) determine the community's assets.
C) identify prior successful community programs.
D) verify the extent of on-going health issues.

Question 59

When carrying out a MAPP process, identifying factors that affect the community, both positively and negatively, is the aim of:

A) the Local Public Health System Assessment.
B) the Threats and Opportunities Assessment.
C) the Forces of Change Assessment.
D) the Health Status Assessment.

Question 60

The program plans developed during the MAPP process are implemented by:

A) action teams.
B) members of the Core Group.
C) a community coalition.
D) the delivery organization.

Question 61

The basis for a successful MAPP process lies in:

A) the collaborative effort of MAPP partners working together.
B) the commitment of the organizations represented by those in the core group.
C) community participation in the process.
D) addressing the most pressing need identified by the community.

Question 62

When a planning committee decides to use MAP-IT, it does so knowing the framework recognizes that improving the health of a community is a group effort and therefore creates a coalition to guide the process that entails:

A) bringing together a diverse group of people with common interests to work toward a goal.
B) obtaining support from local political officials.
C) identifying an agency to take the lead responsibility for the MAP-IT process.
D) holding focus groups with various community entities to generate their support.

Question 63

When forming a coalition, many issues arise including all the following except:

A) historical issues concerned with members who may have had difficult past experiences working together.
B) leadership issues concerned with ensuring a collaborative process.
C) funding issues concerned with conflicts between a funder's focus and that of the coalition.
D) title issues concerned with the naming of the coalition.

Question 64

It's during the assessment step of the MAP-IT framework that:

A) the community's assets are examined.
B) possible coalition members' contributions are appraised.
C) program activities are evaluated.
D) scaling option pros and cons are considered.

Question 65

The key to using MAP-IT successfully and having a strong coalition is to:

A) minimize the frequency and length of meetings.
B) rotate leadership of the coalition among all members on a regular basis.
C) keep members involved in all aspects of the program planning process.
D) assign tasks to members that match their prior experiences, skills, or area of expertise.

Question 66

Intervention Mapping guides program development based on an approach that recognizes:

A) programs have a greater likelihood of changing behavior if planned in a stepwise fashion.
B) behavior reflects the social, physical, and organizational environments in which people live.
C) behavior change as an ethical issue in the process of improving a community's health.
D) self-efficacy plays a role in a person's decision to adopt a new behavior.

Question 67

Using Intervention Mapping entails applying six core processes that are integral to the framework, which include all the following except:

A) posing questions.
B) literature reviews.
C) brainstorming.
D) visioning.

Question 68

When the Intervention Mapping framework is used to guide program development, it's done with the understanding that:

A) all the framework steps must be completed in the order described.
B) all the framework steps must be completed, but the order can be adjusted.
C) the framework steps to be completed are determined by the planning committee.
D) the framework steps are guidelines and not expected to be completed.

Question 69

The first undertaking of a planning committee using the Intervention Mapping framework entails:

A) developing a map of the community of concern.
B) conducting a needs assessment.
C) creating an asset map.
D) selecting a lead organization.

Question 70

When Intervention Mapping is chosen as the framework for program planning, it's with the understanding that it involves creating all the following except:

A) matrices.
B) spreadsheets.
C) production plans.
D) logic models.

Question 71

To increase the accuracy of program materials that are translated into the language of the intended audience, all the following are suggested except:

A) hiring a professional translator.
B) translating the materials into the target language and then back into English.
C) using an online translation tool in conjunction with a native speaker.
D) conducting focus groups with native speakers from the community.

Question 72

Intervention Mapping includes pre-testing program materials to determine if the intended audience finds them to be all the following except:

A) understandable.
B) feasible.
C) attractive.
D) relevant.

Question 73

Pilot testing is an integral task in the Intervention Mapping framework for which all the following tips are offered except:

A) implement the program exactly as described in the implementation plan.
B) record which aspects of the program need adjustment.
C) use random sampling to form the pilot group.
D) have a plan for collecting feedback from the program presenters.

Question 74

The Strategic Prevention Framework would be appropriate to use for planning a program that addresses:

A) teen alcohol use.
B) suicide in the elderly.
C) childhood obesity.
D) texting while driving.

Question 75

In deciding to use the Strategic Prevention Framework, a planning committee is acknowledging it will adhere to its underlying guiding principles of:

A) inclusion and diversity.
B) cultural competence and sustainability.
C) social justice and equity.
D) beneficence and non-maleficence.

Question 76

In addition to the first step of the Strategic Preventions Framework focusing on assessing the community's problems and prioritizing them, it also assesses:

A) community assets
B) risk and protective factors
C) potential organization partners
D) community readiness for change

Question 77

Building capacity to ensure a community is ready for change entails all the following except:

A) involving stakeholders in the planning process.
B) creating a diverse planning committee of stakeholders.
C) increasing community awareness of the problem and the program being planned to address it.
D) identifying resources to strengthen inadequate infrastructure.

Question 78

The analyzing framework of the Protocol for Assessing Community Excellence in Environmental Health is used to:

A) determine the extent of the environmental problem identified by the community.
B) select the assessment method most likely to uncover environmental health issues.
C) identify interrelated factors contributing to the environmental health issues in the community.
D) establish the priority environmental health issues in the community.

Question 79

Developing a health communication program entails segmenting the population, which entails:

A) dividing the population into pods based on the geographic location of where they live.
B) separating the population into groups based on characteristics related to the health problem.
C) breaking the population into units by age.
D) splitting the population into clusters of equal numbers.

Question 80

A creative brief or the communication strategy is a document developed when planning a health communication program that:

A) guides program products, activities, and communication with the intended audience.
B) explains the process to be used for creating program products and messages.
C) describes the communication channels selected to best reach each audience segment.
D) provides a rationale for why the specific program products and messages were created.