Deck 8: Reproductive Function

Question 1

The sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) on a laboratory analysis is a reflection of the amount of:

A) unbound testosterone in body tissues.
B) free testosterone in body tissues.
C) bound testosterone in body tissues.
D) biologically active testosterone in body tissues.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Proper erectile functioning requires:

A) sympathetic stimulation with release of prostaglandins.
B) parasympathetic stimulation with release of nitric oxide.
C) dilation of the veins so that blood can flow outward.
D) full expansion of the corpus spongiosum.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Intrauterine contraceptive devices can contain progesterone. The addition of this hormone prevents ovulation by:

A) estrogen inhibition.
B) prevention of uterine contractions and implantation.
C) luteinizing hormone stimulation.
D) follicle-stimulating hormone inhibition.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

A woman wants to learn about the cervical method for contraception. She is taught that around ovulation, the cervical mucus changes and becomes:

A) thick and drier.
B) scant amount but slippery.
C) clear, slippery, and stretchy.
D) whitish and inelastic.

Question 5

Implantation of the zygote usually occurs __________ after fertilization.

A) immediately
B) less than 1 day
C) 1-2 days
D) approximately 5-6 days

Question 6

Human chorionic gonadotropin is generally detected in some pregnancy tests, and a positive result reflects pregnancy. What is the purpose of this hormone during pregnancy?

A) It stimulates corpus luteum to produce estrogen and progesterone.
B) It stimulates follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone production.
C) It inhibits estrogen and progesterone.
D) It stimulates inhibin to suppress follicle-stimulating hormone.

Question 7

Declining estrogen levels that occur with menopause can cause which of the following manifestations?

A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Decreased bone density
C) Increased vaginal lubrication
D) Increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and decreased low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
E) Both vaginal atrophy and decreased bone density

Question 8

What education should be provided to parents who have a son with an undescended testis?

A) Most testis will descend by 18 months.
B) Undescended testes do not alter fertility.
C) Later in life, he could be at risk for testicular cancer.
D) The only treatment is to remove the undescended testis.

Question 9

Erectile dysfunction can be an early warning sign of:

A) cardiovascular disease.
B) balanitis.
C) Peyronie disease.
D) testicular cancer.

Question 10

A 55-year-old man is complaining of difficulty with having an erection. He explains he has erections sometimes at night or when he wakes up, and it has been a problem for about 6 months. He is married and denies any relational problems other than being tired often and not in the mood to engage in sexual intercourse. He has a history of hypertension and is taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme. He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day for 25 years. Initial diagnostic testing will include:

A) serum glucose testing, a lipid profile, and thyroid profile.
B) penile ultrasound.
C) serum sex-binding hormone globulin and prolactin.
D) cavernosography.

Question 11

A father brought his son to the emergency room because he has a painful erection that is not abating. His son has sickle cell anemia. He is diagnosed with priapism. How does sickle cell lead to priapism?

A) Too much blood is shunted to the corpus cavernosum.
B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis.
C) There is an increase in nitric oxide, which increases blood flow.
D) The sickled red blood cells cause trauma to the shaft.

Question 12

A man has been complaining that his scrotum sometimes feels heavy, and it seems to get worse as the day progresses. He says it's not too bothersome. An ultrasound is done and reveals the presence of a small hydrocele. You would explain that:

A) surgery is almost always necessary to remove the fluid.
B) he is at increased risk for testicular cancer.
C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
D) an inguinal hernia is the caus.

Question 13

A 14-year-old boy was playing soccer and developed sudden acute testicular pain. He is at the emergency room. Clinical exam reveals a very painful, swollen, left testis. The most likely cause of this testicular pain is:

A) testicular cancer.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) varicocele.
D) testicular torsion.

Question 14

A cause of testicular torsion includes:

A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum.
B) a long spermatic cord.
C) the testicle is in a longitudinal position.
D) epididymitis.

Question 15

Structural uterine disorders that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding include:

A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids).
B) thyroid disorders.
C) medications such as hormones.
D) coagulopathy.

Question 16

Primary dysmenorrhea is usually the result of the excessive secretion of:

A) estrogen.
B) prostaglandin.
C) progesterone.
D) inhibin.

Question 17

A general distinction between a leiomyosarcoma and a uterine fibroid is that the leiomyosarcoma

A) may manifest as a rapidly enlarging, firm fixed uterus.
B) grows very slowly and does not cause any symptoms.
C) only occurs in menopausal women.
D) is usually a disorder in young women.

Question 18

Functional ovarian cysts develop as a result of:

A) the nondominant follicle getting reabsorbed.
B) an enlarged corpus luteum.
C) the dominant follicle retaining fluid rather than releasing the egg.
D) a lack of fertilization.

Question 19

Most women with polycystic ovarian syndrome have:

A) decreased sensitivity to luteinizing hormone.
B) excessive stimulation of follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) functional ovarian hyperandrogenism.
D) decreased gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Question 20

The four different phenotypes to describe polycystic ovarian syndrome include which of the following?

A) Infertility
B) Amenorrhea
C) Hyperandrogenism
D) Oligo-anovulation
E) Hyperandrogenism and oligo-anovulation

Question 21

A 30-year-old woman had an ultrasound of her breast done due to complaints of a firm solid mass on her right breast. The findings of the ultrasound conclude that the mass is a simple fibroadenoma. What education should she be provided pertaining to this fibroadenoma?

A) This mass is not associated with an increased risk of cancer.
B) There is a very slight increase risk in this mass becoming cancer.
C) There is a high risk of this mass becoming cancer.
D) This type of mass is considered a ductal carcinoma in situ.

Question 22

A 30-year-old man is complaining of dysuria, chills, fever, and muscle aching. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 101°F. He denies being sexually active for the past year. The physical examination was unremarkable except for the digital rectal exam, which reveals a very tender prostate. What is the treatment strategy?

A) Antibiotic coverage for Syphilis
B) Urinary catheterization to prevent urinary retention
C) Antibiotics to cover Escherichia coli
D) Hospitalization for intravenous broad spectrum antibiotic administration

Question 23

Which of the following infections would increase risk for cancer development in the genital region?

A) Syphilis
B) Chancroid
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Human papillomavirus

Question 24

A patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What should be included in the teaching plan?

A) You are only infectious if the lesions are draining.
B) You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms.
C) You will require several weeks of antibiotic treatment."
D) You are restricted from engaging in sexual activity until your blood tests are negative.

Question 25

When assessing a woman with possible gonorrhea, __________ is of most concern.

A) odorous vaginal discharge
B) abdominal tenderness
C) painful urination
D) anal itching

Question 26

A reduction in Lactobacillus in the vaginal flora results in:

A) a lower vaginal pH.
B) increased microbicide activity.
C) a higher vaginal pH.
D) a high production of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 27

The presence of clue cells in vaginal discharge seen on a saline wet mount slide is indicative of:

A) vaginal candidiasis.
B) trichomonas vaginalis.
C) bacterial vaginosis.
D) chlamydia.

Question 28

The __________ causes syphilis.

A) Neisseria syphilis, an anaerobic bacterium,
B) Treponema pallidum, a spirochete,
C) Haemophilus ducreyi, a bacterium,
D) Chlamydia trachomatis, an intracellular parasite,

Question 29

A patient has a painless genital ulcer. He reports he had unprotected sex with two female partners within the last month. Which of the following diagnostic tests best confirms the cause of the ulcer?

A) Gonorrhea positive nucleic acid amplification.
B) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test is reactive.
C) Rapid plasma reagin test is 1:16.
D) High-risk human papilloma virus is positive.

Question 30

A patient has just been diagnosed with genital herpes (herpes simplex virus type 2). What are some strategies that can prevent recurrence?

A) Implementing stress reduction strategies such as yoga and meditation.
B) Taking doxycycline prophylactically.
C) Using condoms.
D) Taking vitamin C to build up the immune system.

Question 31

How does male circumcision reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

A) Smegma, which attracted STIs, does not form without a prepuce.
B) Removal of the prepuce removes blood vessels that carry organisms.
C) Langerhans cells on the penis are exposed and fight off organisms.
D) Removal allows for the glans penis to keratinize.

Question 32

The type of tumor that causes testicular cancer is usually:

A) a slow growing seminoma germ cell tumor.
B) a fast growing nonseminoma germ cell tumor.
C) adenocarcinoma.
D) squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 33

Which cancers are associated with alterations of the BRCA1 gene?

A) Endometrial and ovarian
B) Endometrial and cervical
C) Breast and cervical
D) Breast and ovarian