Deck 26: Microbial Diseases

Question 1

Using the figure below, what does RML stand for?

A) right mediastinum lobe
B) right lower lobe
C) right middle lobe
D) right upper lobe
E) right middle lung

Answer 1

C

Question 2

German measles and ________ are different names describing the same disease.

A) shingles
B) rubeola
C) rubella
D) varicella
E) smallpox

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Using the figure below, which organism is an incidental host for Lyme disease?

A) deer
B) horse
C) mouse
D) squirrel
E) dog

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Rubeola measles is caused by ________ virus.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of influenza?

A) fever
B) runny nose
C) muscle aches
D) sore throat
E) headache

Question 6

A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that

A) she has measles caused by the rubeola virus.
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) she has a toxin-encoding phage that also encodes antibiotic-degrading enzymes.
D) the causative agent is a MRSA.
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue has limited access to the antibiotic.

Question 7

E. coli can cause which of the following infections?

A) MRSA
B) encephalitis
C) German measles
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E) meningitis

Question 8

A clinician would most likely treat MRSA with

A) penicillin G.
B) tetracycline.
C) vancomycin.
D) ciprofloxacin.
E) amoxicillin.

Question 9

Which of the following respiratory infections is caused by a viral pathogen?

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) Legionnaires' disease
E) severe acute respiratory syndrome

Question 10

Which disease below is caused without an infection?

A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis

Question 11

A tuberculin skin test on a patient with an active tuberculosis disease will result in

A) a negative result.
B) a positive result.
C) profuse bleeding.
D) an ulcerating lesion.
E) severe bruising.

Question 12

The causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis is

A) Vibrio cholerae.
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
C) Clostridium perfringens.
D) Clostridium difficile.
E) Helicobacter pylori.

Question 13

What type of disease is an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to humans?

A) zoonotic
B) herd
C) fulminating
D) recurrent or cyclic
E) community acquired

Question 14

Many infectious diseases display similar ________, making diagnosis difficult.

A) syndromes
B) symptoms
C) vectors
D) disease mechanisms
E) modes of transmission

Question 15

Bacterial infections of the lung that arise secondary to viral disease are attributable in part to

A) the high virulence of the bacterial pathogen.
B) viruses providing attachment receptors for the bacteria.
C) the host's phagocytes mutating.
D) an impaired mucociliary escalator due to dehydration of the host.
E) the low virulence of the viral disease.

Question 16

The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that

A) the bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) no antibiotic is useful, because it's a mixed infection.
C) toxin-encoding phage also encode antibiotic-degrading enzymes.
D) the causative agent is an MRSA.
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits treatment access.

Question 17

All of the following are true for a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT that

A) latent tuberculosis is indicated.
B) it signifies active disease in all patients.
C) a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction occurred.
D) the purified protein derivative is the antigen.
E) redness and some swelling was observed.

Question 18

Most diarrheal diseases are of what origin?

A) viral
B) bacterial
C) fungal
D) archaeal
E) They can be of any origin.

Question 19

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all of the following EXCEPT

A) meningitis.
B) lobar pneumonia.
C) bronchopneumonia.
D) necrotizing fasciitis.
E) bacteremia.

Question 20

What virus is shown in the figure below?

A) HIV
B) MRSA
C) Ebola
D) influenza
E) rhinovirus

Question 21

A chancre is the initial symptom of

A) gonorrhea.
B) chlamydia.
C) syphilis.
D) chancroid.
E) genital warts.

Question 22

Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?

A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite

Question 23

Which of the following pathogens is an intracellular agent?

A) chlamydia
B) rickettsia
C) prion
D) chlamydia and rickettsia
E) None of these pathogens is an intracellular agent.

Question 24

A nationwide recall of spinach in 2006 was due to contamination by cattle water containing

A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) E. coli O157:H7.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella species.
E) hepatitis A virus.

Question 25

In urinary tract infections (UTIs), what is the implication of the ability of bacteria to actually hide urinary tract epithelial cells and form biofilms?

A) UTIs can never be cured.
B) A reservoir for reinfection is created.
C) The kidney will invariably be infected.
D) Intracellular pathogens are the etiologies for UTI.
E) The ureter is the usual route for bladder infection.

Question 26

Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause cancer through

A) toxin production.
B) inducing superantigens.
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow.
D) injecting the CagA protein into gastric epithelial cells.
E) adhering with pili to the oropharygeal epithelium.

Question 27

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT typically prescribed for staphylococcal food poisoning?

A) The bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) No antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) No living cells are involved in the disease.
D) The causative agent is MRSA.
E) Some antibiotics will trigger gastrointestinal disease.

Question 28

Strains of Escherichia coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use ________ to latch on to proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.

A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx

Question 29

Which of the following STDs is most likely to lead to sterility?

A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

Question 30

During secondary syphilis, the spirochetes spread to the nervous and cardiovascular system. Consequently

A) secondary syphilis is a latent form of the disease.
B) it cannot be cured.
C) the host remains infectious and has a characteristic rash.
D) serology is negative.
E) there is no transplacental transmission.

Question 31

The most common route of infection in a urinary tract infection is the ________ to the ________.

A) gallbladder; urethra
B) bladder; kidney
C) kidney; bladder
D) urethra; bladder
E) kidney; urethra

Question 32

The presence of leukocytes in a fecal smear would best indicate ________ infection.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) enteroinvasive
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 33

Which of the following is correctly paired?

A) Koplik's spot-HIV-induced cancer
B) herd immunity-immunity of animals
C) acetylcholine blocker- botulism toxin
D) Lyme disease-enteric disorder
E) enteric fever-elevated white blood cell counts

Question 34

What diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies?

A) meningitis
B) cytotoxin
C) neurotoxin
D) prion
E) virus

Question 35

By the age of three, all children are believed to have had a rotavirus infection, which is spread by what route?

A) food
B) fecal-oral
C) air
D) blood
E) water

Question 36

Diarrhea associated with the intake of nonabsorbable substrates is categorized as

A) osmotic diarrhea.
B) motility-related diarrhea.
C) secretory diarrhea.
D) inflammatory diarrhea.
E) gastroenteritis.

Question 37

Colitis is classified by inflammation in the

A) small intestine.
B) stomach lining.
C) colon.
D) large intestine.
E) small and large intestines, stomach lining, and colon.

Question 38

Chlamydia employs ________ for spreading within and between hosts.

A) elementary body
B) rapidly replicating reticulate body
C) microspore
D) conidia
E) actin polymer

Question 39

Which of the following STDs is caused by a protozoan infection?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) HIV
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 40

Osteomyelitis is a bone infection caused by bacteria with accompanying inflammation and bone destruction. The bones most often affected are in the

A) arm.
B) fingers.
C) neck.
D) nose.
E) lower extremities.

Question 41

A hunter who presents with flu-like symptoms and lives in Boston, Massachusetts, has a "bull's-eye" rash on his leg. The appropriate diagnosis is

A) Lyme disease
B) tuleremia
C) meningitis
D) malaria
E) measles

Question 42

Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.

Question 43

Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?

A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.

Question 44

The ________ vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent (11-12 years).

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 45

What evidence suggests that Columbus did not bring syphilis back from the New World, but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?

A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.

Question 47

Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Interpret the reasons for its success in causing disease.

Question 48

Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?

A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B

Question 49

Predict how a chest X-ray and blood counts differ for a fungal versus bacterial lung infection in children and adults.

Question 50

How can prescribing an antibiotic for a sick patient actually lead to triggering gastrointestinal illness? Explain and give an example.

Question 51

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for the enterohemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7, or EHEC?

Question 52

Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?

A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 54

Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?

Question 55

Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and sheep-related products?

Question 56

Using the following figures, interpret what is occurring in Figure A.

Question 57

One major source of Clostridium botulinum infection in infants is

A) any honey-based meal.
B) endospore-contaminated honey.
C) contaminated drinking water.
D) fomites in the house.
E) breast milk.

Question 58

A commonly implicated causative agent of subacute endocarditis (SBE) is

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Viridans streptococci.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Borrelia burgdorferi.

Question 59

Hepatitis A and B viruses both

A) are RNA viruses.
B) infect the liver.
C) can be transmitted by blood products.
D) have vaccines.
E) infect the liver and are vaccines for both viral diseases.

Question 60

What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?

Question 61

Using the following figures, interpret what is occurring in Figure C.

Question 62

Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.

Question 63

Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.

Question 64

Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism neurotoxins.

Question 65

People who come down with STDs and do not get treated, frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.

Question 66

Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.

Question 67

How does Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secrete its potent toxins in food?

Question 68

What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.

Question 69

Using the figures below, summarize what is occurring at D.