Deck 4: Communication Skills
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Deck 4: Communication Skills
1
Which of the following is an example of an open-end question?
A) How many employees to have?
B) Are you working with a supplier at present?
C) How do you currently assess the performance of your suppliers?
D) Are you interested in making a purchase today?
E) Do you prefer tea or coffee?
A) How many employees to have?
B) Are you working with a supplier at present?
C) How do you currently assess the performance of your suppliers?
D) Are you interested in making a purchase today?
E) Do you prefer tea or coffee?
C
2
The question "Do you see the advantages of implementing a uniform tax rate for all products?" is most likely an example of a(n) _____.
A) evaluative question
B) reactive question
C) tactical question
D) dichotomous question
E) ordinal-scale question
A) evaluative question
B) reactive question
C) tactical question
D) dichotomous question
E) ordinal-scale question
A
3
Which of the following types of questions are used by salespeople to probe for descriptive information?
A) Closed-end questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Open-end questions
D) Directive questions
E) Dichotomous questions
A) Closed-end questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Open-end questions
D) Directive questions
E) Dichotomous questions
C
4
In the context of the types of questions classified by strategic purpose, _____ are designed to penetrate below generalized or superficial information to elicit more articulate and precise details for use in needs discovery and solution identification.
A) dichotomous questions
B) directive questions
C) probing questions
D) tactical questions
E) closed-end questions
A) dichotomous questions
B) directive questions
C) probing questions
D) tactical questions
E) closed-end questions
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5
_____ deliver richer and more expansive information than closed-end questions.
A) Directive questions
B) Dichotomous questions
C) Ordinal-scale questions
D) Open-end questions
E) Multiple-choice questions
A) Directive questions
B) Dichotomous questions
C) Ordinal-scale questions
D) Open-end questions
E) Multiple-choice questions
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6
Which of the following is an example of an open-end question designed to be evaluative in nature?
A) How do you feel about the new tax exemption policy for start-up businesses?
B) Which is easier to use for you, Google or Firefox?
C) Earlier you mentioned that your employees have a low morale. How do you think that impacts your business?
D) How often do you face power outages in this area?
E) You said that this technology does not suit your customers' requirements; could you give me an example of what you mean?
A) How do you feel about the new tax exemption policy for start-up businesses?
B) Which is easier to use for you, Google or Firefox?
C) Earlier you mentioned that your employees have a low morale. How do you think that impacts your business?
D) How often do you face power outages in this area?
E) You said that this technology does not suit your customers' requirements; could you give me an example of what you mean?
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7
Which of the following types of questions can be used by salespeople to change the topic of discussion to avoid embarrassing prospective customers or themselves by proceeding on a forbidden or nonproductive line of questioning?
A) Evaluative questions
B) Reactive questions
C) Probing questions
D) Tactical questions
E) Dichotomous questions
A) Evaluative questions
B) Reactive questions
C) Probing questions
D) Tactical questions
E) Dichotomous questions
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8
In the context of sales communication, effective communication skills are needed:
A) to enable buyers and salespeople to reach an agreement immediately.
B) to identify buying needs and to demonstrate to buyers how a salesperson's proposed solution can satisfy those needs better than competitors.
C) to allow salespeople to isolate themselves from the decision-making process of buyers.
D) to enable salespeople to maximize profits in the short run and to develop agreement among participants.
E) to determine the mental state of buyers and manipulate them into believing that a product has high attributes.
A) to enable buyers and salespeople to reach an agreement immediately.
B) to identify buying needs and to demonstrate to buyers how a salesperson's proposed solution can satisfy those needs better than competitors.
C) to allow salespeople to isolate themselves from the decision-making process of buyers.
D) to enable salespeople to maximize profits in the short run and to develop agreement among participants.
E) to determine the mental state of buyers and manipulate them into believing that a product has high attributes.
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9
The purpose of trust-based sales communication is:
A) to allow salespeople to dominate and control a sales conversation.
B) to hasten the sales process.
C) to maintain short-term relationships with buyers.
D) to maximize common understanding between buyers and sellers.
E) to provide salespeople with complete autonomy in the decision-making process of buyers.
A) to allow salespeople to dominate and control a sales conversation.
B) to hasten the sales process.
C) to maintain short-term relationships with buyers.
D) to maximize common understanding between buyers and sellers.
E) to provide salespeople with complete autonomy in the decision-making process of buyers.
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10
The question "Do you see the merits of the solution I'm proposing?" is an example of a(n) _____.
A) evaluative question
B) dichotomous question
C) activation question
D) tactical question
E) reactive question
A) evaluative question
B) dichotomous question
C) activation question
D) tactical question
E) reactive question
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11
Which of the following should be incorporated by salespeople in their sales communication to encourage thoughtful responses from buyers?
A) Unbroken eye contact
B) Carefully crafted questions
C) A rigid erect posture
D) A slow rate of speech
E) Crossed arms and legs
A) Unbroken eye contact
B) Carefully crafted questions
C) A rigid erect posture
D) A slow rate of speech
E) Crossed arms and legs
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12
"Talking with the customer" rather than "talking at the customer" is a characteristic of _____.
A) trust-based sales communication
B) mass marketing
C) incentive-based sales communication
D) traditional selling
E) transaction-based sales communication
A) trust-based sales communication
B) mass marketing
C) incentive-based sales communication
D) traditional selling
E) transaction-based sales communication
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13
"Do you prefer tea or coffee?" is an example of a(n) _____.
A) ordinal-scale question
B) open-end question
C) interval-scale question
D) nondirective question
E) dichotomous question
A) ordinal-scale question
B) open-end question
C) interval-scale question
D) nondirective question
E) dichotomous question
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14
The question "That sounds like an important issue; could you give me an example of what you mean?" is an example of a(n) _____.
A) ordinal-scale question
B) probing question
C) closed-end question
D) tactical question
E) dichotomous question
A) ordinal-scale question
B) probing question
C) closed-end question
D) tactical question
E) dichotomous question
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15
_____ are questions that refer to or directly result from information the other party previously provided.
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Evaluative questions
C) Tactical questions
D) Probing questions
E) Reactive questions
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Evaluative questions
C) Tactical questions
D) Probing questions
E) Reactive questions
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16
_____ is the sharing of meaning between buying and selling individuals that results from the interactive process of exchanging information and ideas.
A) Incentive-based sales communication
B) Trust-based sales communication
C) Aggressive sales communication
D) Traditional sales communication
E) Transaction-based sales communication
A) Incentive-based sales communication
B) Trust-based sales communication
C) Aggressive sales communication
D) Traditional sales communication
E) Transaction-based sales communication
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17
_____ allow salespeople to understand customer needs and expectations by encouraging them to respond freely.
A) Directive questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Closed-end questions
D) Open-end questions
E) Dichotomous questions
A) Directive questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Closed-end questions
D) Open-end questions
E) Dichotomous questions
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18
Which of the following is an example of a closed-end question?
A) How do you determine sales goals for each region?
B) Why are your customers currently unhappy?
C) Is this the primary reason you are interested in switching suppliers?
D) How do you currently process orders?
E) Describe how you feel about using eco-friendly materials?
A) How do you determine sales goals for each region?
B) Why are your customers currently unhappy?
C) Is this the primary reason you are interested in switching suppliers?
D) How do you currently process orders?
E) Describe how you feel about using eco-friendly materials?
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19
Kim is a salesperson for DEF Advertising. She has trouble in controlling the conversation that takes place in her sales calls. She finds that her customers often talk about relatively unimportant things until her time with those customers is up. Kim could most likely benefit by:
A) improving her questioning skills and using carefully crafted questions.
B) being outspoken with her customers and telling them they are wasting her time.
C) dominating the sales call so the customers do not have any opportunity to go off track.
D) being more formal and less friendly during the sales call.
E) using nonverbal gestures to change the direction of the conversation.
A) improving her questioning skills and using carefully crafted questions.
B) being outspoken with her customers and telling them they are wasting her time.
C) dominating the sales call so the customers do not have any opportunity to go off track.
D) being more formal and less friendly during the sales call.
E) using nonverbal gestures to change the direction of the conversation.
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20
In the context of the types of questions classified by strategic purpose, which of the following types of questions is best used in a conversational style and can be used to request clarification, encourage elaboration, and verify information and responses?
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Probing questions
D) Directive questions
E) Closed-end questions
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Multiple-choice questions
C) Probing questions
D) Directive questions
E) Closed-end questions
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21
In the context of the ADAPT questioning system, _____ follow up on the responses gained from the preceding assessment questions.
A) discovery questions
B) divergent questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
A) discovery questions
B) divergent questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
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22
Which of the following is a purpose of the SPIN questioning system?
A) To limit a customer's response to one or two words
B) To uncover a buyer's inherent problems
C) To help salespeople overcome rejection
D) To isolate salespeople from the decision-making process of buyers
E) To encourage salespeople to use transaction-focused traditional selling
A) To limit a customer's response to one or two words
B) To uncover a buyer's inherent problems
C) To help salespeople overcome rejection
D) To isolate salespeople from the decision-making process of buyers
E) To encourage salespeople to use transaction-focused traditional selling
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23
Which of the following is true of strategic questions?
A) They are used by salespeople to isolate themselves from the decision-making process of buyers.
B) They are designed to limit the responses of customers to one or two words.
C) They allow salespeople to use transaction-focused traditional selling rather than customer-focused relationship selling.
D) They make salespeople rely more on spontaneity while questioning prospective buyers.
E) They stimulate buyers and salespeople to think thoroughly and pragmatically about and consider all aspects of a given situation.
A) They are used by salespeople to isolate themselves from the decision-making process of buyers.
B) They are designed to limit the responses of customers to one or two words.
C) They allow salespeople to use transaction-focused traditional selling rather than customer-focused relationship selling.
D) They make salespeople rely more on spontaneity while questioning prospective buyers.
E) They stimulate buyers and salespeople to think thoroughly and pragmatically about and consider all aspects of a given situation.
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24
Which of the following is true of implication questions?
A) They are used to divert a buyer's attention from a problem.
B) They refocus a buyer's attention to solutions rather than problems.
C) Their purpose is to propose a solution and develop commitment from a buyer.
D) Their purpose is to assist a buyer in thinking about the potential consequences of a problem.
E) They focus on educating a buyer about the need to ignore minor problems for major gains.
A) They are used to divert a buyer's attention from a problem.
B) They refocus a buyer's attention to solutions rather than problems.
C) Their purpose is to propose a solution and develop commitment from a buyer.
D) Their purpose is to assist a buyer in thinking about the potential consequences of a problem.
E) They focus on educating a buyer about the need to ignore minor problems for major gains.
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25
According to the ADAPT system of questioning, _____ should drill down and probe for further details needed to fully develop, clarify, and understand the nature of a buyer's problems.
A) activation questions
B) divergent questions
C) projection questions
D) discovery questions
E) transition questions
A) activation questions
B) divergent questions
C) projection questions
D) discovery questions
E) transition questions
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26
According to the SPIN questioning system, the purpose of _____ is to assist a buyer in understanding the urgency of resolving a problem in a way that motivates him or her to seek a solution.
A) assessment questions
B) situation questions
C) implication questions
D) discovery questions
E) need-payoff questions
A) assessment questions
B) situation questions
C) implication questions
D) discovery questions
E) need-payoff questions
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27
Which of the following is true of assessment questions?
A) They focus on seeking alternative solutions to existing problems.
B) They are designed to be threatening and intimidating to a customer.
C) They are designed to spark conversation that elicits factual information about a customer's current situation.
D) They mainly consist of closed-end questions and are used in the third stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
E) They focus on ascertaining the validity of a customer's complaint.
A) They focus on seeking alternative solutions to existing problems.
B) They are designed to be threatening and intimidating to a customer.
C) They are designed to spark conversation that elicits factual information about a customer's current situation.
D) They mainly consist of closed-end questions and are used in the third stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
E) They focus on ascertaining the validity of a customer's complaint.
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28
Which of the following is a similarity between SPIN and ADAPT questioning systems?
A) Both require salespeople to dominate conversations and interactions with customers.
B) Both use a logical sequencing that begins with broad-based, nonthreatening, general questions.
C) Both are best used with transaction-focused traditional selling.
D) Both emphasize understanding customers' problems but do not propose solutions for those problems.
E) Both limit customers' responses to one or two words.
A) Both require salespeople to dominate conversations and interactions with customers.
B) Both use a logical sequencing that begins with broad-based, nonthreatening, general questions.
C) Both are best used with transaction-focused traditional selling.
D) Both emphasize understanding customers' problems but do not propose solutions for those problems.
E) Both limit customers' responses to one or two words.
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29
In the context of the SPIN questioning system, _____ solicit data and facts in the form of general background information and descriptions of a buyer's existing circumstances.
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) projection questions
D) need-payoff questions
E) activation questions
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) projection questions
D) need-payoff questions
E) activation questions
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30
Which of the following is a difference between open-end questions and closed-end questions?
A) Open-end questions limit a customer's response to one or two words, whereas closed-end questions allow a customer to respond freely.
B) Open-end questions are also known as dichotomous questions, whereas closed-end questions are also known as multiple-choice questions.
C) Closed-end questions deliver richer and more expansive information than open-end questions.
D) Open-end questions are directive forms of questioning, whereas closed-end questions are nondirective forms of questioning.
E) Open-end questions are best used for discovery and exploration, whereas closed-end questions are best used for clarification and confirmation.
A) Open-end questions limit a customer's response to one or two words, whereas closed-end questions allow a customer to respond freely.
B) Open-end questions are also known as dichotomous questions, whereas closed-end questions are also known as multiple-choice questions.
C) Closed-end questions deliver richer and more expansive information than open-end questions.
D) Open-end questions are directive forms of questioning, whereas closed-end questions are nondirective forms of questioning.
E) Open-end questions are best used for discovery and exploration, whereas closed-end questions are best used for clarification and confirmation.
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31
In the context of the SPIN questioning system, _____ propose a solution to a buyer's problem.
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) discovery questions
D) problem questions
E) need-payoff questions
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) discovery questions
D) problem questions
E) need-payoff questions
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32
In the context of the SPIN questioning system, _____ refocus a buyer's attention to solutions rather than problems and get the buyer to think about the positive benefits derived from solving the problems.
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) assessment questions
D) discovery questions
E) need-payoff questions
A) situation questions
B) implication questions
C) assessment questions
D) discovery questions
E) need-payoff questions
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33
_____ are not suited for discovering and exploring customer needs.
A) Open-end questions
B) Closed-end questions
C) Reactive questions
D) Evaluative questions
E) Probing questions
A) Open-end questions
B) Closed-end questions
C) Reactive questions
D) Evaluative questions
E) Probing questions
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34
In the context of the five stages of questions in the ADAPT questioning system, _____ do not seek conclusions but rather should address a buyer's company and operations, goals and objectives, market trends and customers, current suppliers, and even the buyer as an individual.
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
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35
According to the SPIN questioning system, "Do you use telemarketing or mobile marketing?" is an example of a(n) _____.
A) activation question
B) projection question
C) implication question
D) situation question
E) transition question
A) activation question
B) projection question
C) implication question
D) situation question
E) transition question
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36
In the context of the SPIN questioning system, _____ follow and relate to the information flowing from problem questions.
A) need-payoff questions
B) implication questions
C) assessment questions
D) situation questions
E) integrity questions
A) need-payoff questions
B) implication questions
C) assessment questions
D) situation questions
E) integrity questions
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37
According to the SPIN questioning system, _____ are used early in a sales call and provide salespeople with leads to develop a buyer's needs and expectations fully.
A) need-payoff questions
B) transition questions
C) projection questions
D) situation questions
E) implication questions
A) need-payoff questions
B) transition questions
C) projection questions
D) situation questions
E) implication questions
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38
ADAPT is an acronym for the five stages of strategic questioning. These stages are:
A) aptitude questions, deductive questions, ability questions, psychometric questions, and therapeutic questions.
B) assessment questions, discovery questions, activation questions, projection questions, and transition questions.
C) ability questions, directional questions, adaptability questions, personality questions, and tolerance questions.
D) adaptability questions, displacement questions, assessment questions, physical questions, and transition questions.
E) aggressive questions, divergent questions, attitude questions, psychological questions, and therapeutic questions.
A) aptitude questions, deductive questions, ability questions, psychometric questions, and therapeutic questions.
B) assessment questions, discovery questions, activation questions, projection questions, and transition questions.
C) ability questions, directional questions, adaptability questions, personality questions, and tolerance questions.
D) adaptability questions, displacement questions, assessment questions, physical questions, and transition questions.
E) aggressive questions, divergent questions, attitude questions, psychological questions, and therapeutic questions.
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39
Which of the following is a disadvantage of situation questions?
A) Their closed-end design fails to provide salespeople with leads to develop buyers' needs.
B) They can be used by salespeople only after solving buyers' existing problems.
C) Their interrogating nature can result in irritated buyers.
D) They can bore salespeople with the trivial issues of buyers.
E) They fail to address the issues of individual customers as they directed at mass markets.
A) Their closed-end design fails to provide salespeople with leads to develop buyers' needs.
B) They can be used by salespeople only after solving buyers' existing problems.
C) Their interrogating nature can result in irritated buyers.
D) They can bore salespeople with the trivial issues of buyers.
E) They fail to address the issues of individual customers as they directed at mass markets.
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40
In the context of the SPIN questioning system, _____ follow the more general situation questions to further probe for specific difficulties, developing problems, and areas of dissatisfaction that might be positively addressed by a salesperson's proposed sales offering.
A) need-payoff questions
B) implication questions
C) projection questions
D) problem questions
E) activation questions
A) need-payoff questions
B) implication questions
C) projection questions
D) problem questions
E) activation questions
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41
In the context of the ADAPT questioning system, discovery questions are succeeded by:
A) assessment questions.
B) aptitude questions.
C) attitude questions.
D) activation questions.
E) adaptability questions.
A) assessment questions.
B) aptitude questions.
C) attitude questions.
D) activation questions.
E) adaptability questions.
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42
_____ is a form of listening that is associated with events or topics in which it is important to sort through, interpret, understand, and respond to received messages.
A) Serious listening
B) Social listening
C) Casual listening
D) False listening
E) Selective listening
A) Serious listening
B) Social listening
C) Casual listening
D) False listening
E) Selective listening
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43
Serious listening is often referred to as _____.
A) active listening
B) social listening
C) apprehensive listening
D) empathic listening
E) therapeutic listening
A) active listening
B) social listening
C) apprehensive listening
D) empathic listening
E) therapeutic listening
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44
Which of the following is a component of active listening that addresses the question of "What meaning does the sender intend?"
A) Sensing
B) Implying
C) Interpreting
D) Hearing
E) Responding
A) Sensing
B) Implying
C) Interpreting
D) Hearing
E) Responding
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45
In the context of the ADAPT questioning system, _____ are a natural extension of activation questions.
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) divergent questions
E) transition questions
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) divergent questions
E) transition questions
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46
Which of the following is true of discovery questions?
A) They are preceded by activation questions.
B) They consist of closed-end questions and are used in the fourth stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
C) They are used to smooth the transition from needs discovery into the presentation and demonstration of a proposed solution's benefits.
D) They focus at a micro level and probe for further details needed to fully clarify and understand a buyer's problems.
E) They confirm a buyer's desire to seek a solution to his or her problem.
A) They are preceded by activation questions.
B) They consist of closed-end questions and are used in the fourth stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
C) They are used to smooth the transition from needs discovery into the presentation and demonstration of a proposed solution's benefits.
D) They focus at a micro level and probe for further details needed to fully clarify and understand a buyer's problems.
E) They confirm a buyer's desire to seek a solution to his or her problem.
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47
In the context of the ADAPT questioning system, _____ trigger a customer's interest in solving discovered problems by helping him or her gain insight into the true ramifications of the problem and to realize that what may initially seem to be of little consequence is, in fact, of significant consequence.
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
A) discovery questions
B) assessment questions
C) projection questions
D) activation questions
E) transition questions
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48
Which of the following is one of the six primary facets of effective listening?
A) Listening to reply
B) Making assumptions
C) Avoiding eye contact with the buyer
D) Encouraging the buyer to talk
E) Avoiding paraphrasing
A) Listening to reply
B) Making assumptions
C) Avoiding eye contact with the buyer
D) Encouraging the buyer to talk
E) Avoiding paraphrasing
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49
_____ is characterized by low levels of cognitive activity and concentration and is typically used in conversation with a friend.
A) Serious listening
B) Social listening
C) Total listening
D) Critical listening
E) Active listening
A) Serious listening
B) Social listening
C) Total listening
D) Critical listening
E) Active listening
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50
Which of the following is true of activation questions?
A) They show the negative impact of a problem so that finding a solution to that problem is desirable.
B) They are succeeded by discovery questions.
C) They are used to smooth the transition from needs discovery into the presentation and demonstration of a proposed solution's features.
D) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
E) They mainly consist of closed-end questions and are used in the first stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
A) They show the negative impact of a problem so that finding a solution to that problem is desirable.
B) They are succeeded by discovery questions.
C) They are used to smooth the transition from needs discovery into the presentation and demonstration of a proposed solution's features.
D) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
E) They mainly consist of closed-end questions and are used in the first stage of the ADAPT questioning system.
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51
In the ADAPT questioning system, _____ encourage and facilitate a buyer in envisioning what it would be like without the problems that have been previously discovered and activated.
A) transition questions
B) problem questions
C) divergent questions
D) projection questions
E) aptitude questions
A) transition questions
B) problem questions
C) divergent questions
D) projection questions
E) aptitude questions
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52
Which of the following can improve sensing skills in listeners?
A) Avoiding eye contact
B) Taking notes
C) Interrupting the speaker for clarification
D) Evaluating a message prior to its completion
E) Reacting to emotional words
A) Avoiding eye contact
B) Taking notes
C) Interrupting the speaker for clarification
D) Evaluating a message prior to its completion
E) Reacting to emotional words
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53
Which of the following is true of projection questions?
A) They mainly consist of closed-end questions.
B) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
C) They are preceded by assessment questions and succeeded by transition questions.
D) They facilitate a buyer to establish the benefits of solving a problem.
E) They help a buyer understand the true ramifications of a problem.
A) They mainly consist of closed-end questions.
B) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
C) They are preceded by assessment questions and succeeded by transition questions.
D) They facilitate a buyer to establish the benefits of solving a problem.
E) They help a buyer understand the true ramifications of a problem.
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54
Which of the following is true of transition questions?
A) They are designed to show the positive impact of solving an existing problem.
B) They emphasize the identification of the problems of a buyer.
C) They are typically closed-end and evaluative in format.
D) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
E) They focus at a micro level and follow up on the details gained from assessment questions.
A) They are designed to show the positive impact of solving an existing problem.
B) They emphasize the identification of the problems of a buyer.
C) They are typically closed-end and evaluative in format.
D) They include broad and generalized inquiries to assess a buyer's situation.
E) They focus at a micro level and follow up on the details gained from assessment questions.
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55
Which of the following is true of social listening?
A) It requires high levels of concentration to ensure that messages are received.
B) It is often referred to as active listening.
C) It is typically used in listening to music, a concert, or a television program.
D) It is associated with events that require a high degree of thinking to sort through, interpret, and understand.
E) It is characterized by high levels of cognitive activity.
A) It requires high levels of concentration to ensure that messages are received.
B) It is often referred to as active listening.
C) It is typically used in listening to music, a concert, or a television program.
D) It is associated with events that require a high degree of thinking to sort through, interpret, and understand.
E) It is characterized by high levels of cognitive activity.
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56
In the ADAPT questioning system, _____ are used to smooth the shift from needs discovery into the presentation and demonstration of the features and benefits of a proposed solution.
A) transition questions
B) problem questions
C) activation questions
D) projection questions
E) divergent questions
A) transition questions
B) problem questions
C) activation questions
D) projection questions
E) divergent questions
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57
SIER is an acronym for:
A) sowing, ideating, examining, and ranking.
B) seeing, inferring, emphasizing, and reacting.
C) sensing, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.
D) strategizing, inculcating, extracting, and recreating.
E) summarizing, intimidating, exposing, and reiterating.
A) sowing, ideating, examining, and ranking.
B) seeing, inferring, emphasizing, and reacting.
C) sensing, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.
D) strategizing, inculcating, extracting, and recreating.
E) summarizing, intimidating, exposing, and reiterating.
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58
Which of the following statements is true of the SIER model of listening?
A) It helps individuals solve problems but does not help them pinpoint the sources of problems.
B) It depicts active listening as a hierarchical, four-step sequence of sensing, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.
C) It suggests that listening is a lateral process of four nonsequential steps-summarizing, inferring, extracting, and reacting.
D) It states that a message must be effectively analyzed before being interpreted.
E) It has been criticized for not providing a framework for evaluating communication accuracy.
A) It helps individuals solve problems but does not help them pinpoint the sources of problems.
B) It depicts active listening as a hierarchical, four-step sequence of sensing, interpreting, evaluating, and responding.
C) It suggests that listening is a lateral process of four nonsequential steps-summarizing, inferring, extracting, and reacting.
D) It states that a message must be effectively analyzed before being interpreted.
E) It has been criticized for not providing a framework for evaluating communication accuracy.
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59
Despite discovering the nature of their problems, buyers often lack the motivation to solve their problems because they believe that:
A) the problems do not cause any significant negative consequences.
B) the problems are beyond their control.
C) salespeople are responsible for finding a solution to their problems.
D) finding a solution to the problems could affect their operational procedures.
E) acknowledging the problems could sever their ties with investors.
A) the problems do not cause any significant negative consequences.
B) the problems are beyond their control.
C) salespeople are responsible for finding a solution to their problems.
D) finding a solution to the problems could affect their operational procedures.
E) acknowledging the problems could sever their ties with investors.
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60
In the context of the SIER model of active listening, which of the following is a component of active listening that requires noting the verbal and nonverbal cues in a message along with possible consistencies and inconsistencies between them?
A) Sensing
B) Receiving
C) Hearing
D) Interpreting
E) Responding
A) Sensing
B) Receiving
C) Hearing
D) Interpreting
E) Responding
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61
Unlike strong listeners, weak listeners:
A) listen for central themes and key ideas.
B) actively look for opportunities of common interest
C) listen to dry subjects.
D) interpret emotional words but do not get hung up on them.
E) take intensive and detailed notes.
A) listen for central themes and key ideas.
B) actively look for opportunities of common interest
C) listen to dry subjects.
D) interpret emotional words but do not get hung up on them.
E) take intensive and detailed notes.
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62
Which the following is true of nonverbal communication?
A) It deals with the semantic meaning of a message.
B) It excludes proxemics.
C) It includes variations in vocal characteristics.
D) It includes nonverbal cues that are uniform across all countries.
E) It fails to convey any meaning.
A) It deals with the semantic meaning of a message.
B) It excludes proxemics.
C) It includes variations in vocal characteristics.
D) It includes nonverbal cues that are uniform across all countries.
E) It fails to convey any meaning.
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63
Increased eye contact by the receiver of a message signals:
A) increasing levels of boredom.
B) a threat or inference of power.
C) deceit and dishonesty.
D) increasing levels of interest and concentration.
E) uncertainty and skepticism.
A) increasing levels of boredom.
B) a threat or inference of power.
C) deceit and dishonesty.
D) increasing levels of interest and concentration.
E) uncertainty and skepticism.
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64
_____ are defined as groups of related nonverbal expressions, gestures, and movements that can be interpreted to better understand the true message being communicated.
A) Nonverbal cues
B) Nonverbal learnings
C) Nonverbal clusters
D) Nonverbal channels
E) Nonverbal social experiences
A) Nonverbal cues
B) Nonverbal learnings
C) Nonverbal clusters
D) Nonverbal channels
E) Nonverbal social experiences
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65
When attending an interview for the position of sales manager at a company, Sarah notices that her interviewer is nodding and smiling while listening to her. In this scenario, Sarah can most likely conclude that the interviewer:
A) has no intention of agreeing with her.
B) has received her message.
C) is dishonest and secretive.
D) is skeptical of her message.
E) is disinterested in her message.
A) has no intention of agreeing with her.
B) has received her message.
C) is dishonest and secretive.
D) is skeptical of her message.
E) is disinterested in her message.
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66
A receiver is most likely to have problems in interpreting the complete message of a salesperson if:
A) the salesperson has a short pause duration.
B) the salesperson's listening skills are lacking.
C) the salesperson's speech rate is jerky.
D) the salesperson is in the social zone of the buyer.
E) the salesperson is not using any nonverbal clusters in the sales communication.
A) the salesperson has a short pause duration.
B) the salesperson's listening skills are lacking.
C) the salesperson's speech rate is jerky.
D) the salesperson is in the social zone of the buyer.
E) the salesperson is not using any nonverbal clusters in the sales communication.
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67
Which of the following statements is true of pictures?
A) They enhance understanding and are easy to recall.
B) They eliminate the possibility of the misinterpretation of a message.
C) They provide more credibility when combined with abstract words than with concrete expressions.
D) They are less memorable than their verbal counterparts.
E) They cannot be used to reinforce verbal messages.
A) They enhance understanding and are easy to recall.
B) They eliminate the possibility of the misinterpretation of a message.
C) They provide more credibility when combined with abstract words than with concrete expressions.
D) They are less memorable than their verbal counterparts.
E) They cannot be used to reinforce verbal messages.
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68
When making a sales call, which of the following body postures is most appropriate for a salesperson?
A) Sitting back in the chair with one's feet up
B) Leaning forward or sitting on the edge of a chair
C) Leaning back with both hands placed behind one's head
D) Sitting on the edge of a table or the arm of a chair
E) Sitting with a rigid posture with crossed arms and legs
A) Sitting back in the chair with one's feet up
B) Leaning forward or sitting on the edge of a chair
C) Leaning back with both hands placed behind one's head
D) Sitting on the edge of a table or the arm of a chair
E) Sitting with a rigid posture with crossed arms and legs
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69
Which of the following can be done by a listener to provide strong signals of interest and understanding to the sender of the message?
A) Giving a blank stare to the sender
B) Restating and paraphrasing the sender's message
C) Summarizing the sender's message with a jerky speech rate
D) Avoiding smiling and nodding when the sender is speaking
E) Leaning away from the sender with both hands placed behind one's head
A) Giving a blank stare to the sender
B) Restating and paraphrasing the sender's message
C) Summarizing the sender's message with a jerky speech rate
D) Avoiding smiling and nodding when the sender is speaking
E) Leaning away from the sender with both hands placed behind one's head
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70
_____ refers to the personal distance that individuals prefer to keep between themselves and other individuals and is an important element of nonverbal communication.
A) Proxemics
B) Oculesics
C) Chronemics
D) Kinesics
E) Orthoptics
A) Proxemics
B) Oculesics
C) Chronemics
D) Kinesics
E) Orthoptics
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71
Maintaining good eye contact with a buyer during a sales presentation most likely:
A) shows skepticism and doubt.
B) indicates inference of power.
C) displays openness and sincerity.
D) signals dishonesty, disinterest, and boredom.
E) signifies that the presentation is about to end.
A) shows skepticism and doubt.
B) indicates inference of power.
C) displays openness and sincerity.
D) signals dishonesty, disinterest, and boredom.
E) signifies that the presentation is about to end.
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72
Claire, a sales manager at ProGuide, is conducting an interview for the position of a sales trainee. During the interview, Claire leans back in her chair and places both hands behind her head. In the context of nonverbal communication, Claire's posture most likely signifies:
A) a positive disposition.
B) increasing interest.
C) a perceived sense of smugness.
D) inflexibility.
E) defensiveness.
A) a positive disposition.
B) increasing interest.
C) a perceived sense of smugness.
D) inflexibility.
E) defensiveness.
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73
Jillian, a salesperson, is in the middle of a sales dialogue with Jeremy, a prospect. She notices that Jeremy backs away each time she comes within four feet of him to talk. Which of the following is most likely a reason for this?
A) Jillian seems incompetent to Jeremy.
B) Jillian seems threatening to Jeremy.
C) Jillian seems apprehensive to Jeremy.
D) Jillian seems rigidly formal to Jeremy.
E) Jillian seems disinterested to Jeremy.
A) Jillian seems incompetent to Jeremy.
B) Jillian seems threatening to Jeremy.
C) Jillian seems apprehensive to Jeremy.
D) Jillian seems rigidly formal to Jeremy.
E) Jillian seems disinterested to Jeremy.
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74
In the context of nonverbal communication, a common nonverbal element of messages that conveys uncertainty, disagreement, and even outright skepticism is _____.
A) pursed lips
B) tightness along the jaw line
C) a loud voice
D) raised eye brows
E) a falling pitch
A) pursed lips
B) tightness along the jaw line
C) a loud voice
D) raised eye brows
E) a falling pitch
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75
The meaning and credibility of a message are significantly downgraded:
A) in the absence of pictures and videos.
B) in the absence of continuous eye contact.
C) if the sender uncrosses his arms and legs while communicating.
D) if the sender uses varying speech rates while communicating.
E) in the absence of proper grammar.
A) in the absence of pictures and videos.
B) in the absence of continuous eye contact.
C) if the sender uncrosses his arms and legs while communicating.
D) if the sender uses varying speech rates while communicating.
E) in the absence of proper grammar.
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76
During the annual investors meeting at his company, Chris constantly drums his fingers on the table. In the context of nonverbal communication, this action of Chris is most likely indicative of:
A) his increased levels of evaluation.
B) his anger.
C) his defensiveness.
D) his growing impatience.
E) his nervousness and apprehension.
A) his increased levels of evaluation.
B) his anger.
C) his defensiveness.
D) his growing impatience.
E) his nervousness and apprehension.
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77
_____ refers to the conscious and unconscious reactions, movements, and utterances that people use in addition to the words and symbols associated with language.
A) Intercultural competence
B) Mirroring
C) Nonverbal communication
D) Adaptive behavior
E) Persuasion
A) Intercultural competence
B) Mirroring
C) Nonverbal communication
D) Adaptive behavior
E) Persuasion
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78
Which of the following is a difference between a weak listener and a strong listener?
A) A weak listener listens for facts, whereas a strong listener listens for central themes.
B) A weak listener does not react to emotional words, whereas a strong listener reacts to emotional words.
C) A weak listener listens to dry subjects, whereas a strong listener tunes out dry subjects.
D) A weak listener takes fewer notes, whereas a strong listener takes intensive and detailed notes.
E) A weak listener skips over delivery errors and focuses on content, whereas a strong listener tunes out if the delivery is poor.
A) A weak listener listens for facts, whereas a strong listener listens for central themes.
B) A weak listener does not react to emotional words, whereas a strong listener reacts to emotional words.
C) A weak listener listens to dry subjects, whereas a strong listener tunes out dry subjects.
D) A weak listener takes fewer notes, whereas a strong listener takes intensive and detailed notes.
E) A weak listener skips over delivery errors and focuses on content, whereas a strong listener tunes out if the delivery is poor.
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79
Which of the following is true of a strong listener?
A) They listen for facts.
B) They resist difficult expository materials in favor of light recreational materials.
C) They evaluate and enter into arguments prior to the completion of a message.
D) They resist distractions and know how to concentrate.
E) They take intensive and detailed notes.
A) They listen for facts.
B) They resist difficult expository materials in favor of light recreational materials.
C) They evaluate and enter into arguments prior to the completion of a message.
D) They resist distractions and know how to concentrate.
E) They take intensive and detailed notes.
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80
In the context of a verbal message, which of the following is true of concrete expressions?
A) They provide the receiver of the message with greater information than abstract expressions.
B) They convey a broad general understanding rather than the detailed meaning.
C) They are more memorable than pictures.
D) They are more likely to be misunderstood than abstract expressions.
E) They force the receiver of the message to focus on the sender rather than on the message.
A) They provide the receiver of the message with greater information than abstract expressions.
B) They convey a broad general understanding rather than the detailed meaning.
C) They are more memorable than pictures.
D) They are more likely to be misunderstood than abstract expressions.
E) They force the receiver of the message to focus on the sender rather than on the message.
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