Deck 19: Male Genitalia

Question 1

Which of the following is the most accurate approximation of normal adult testicular size (in centimeters)?

A) 5 $\times$ 2 $\times$ 3
B) 2 $\times$ 3 $\times$ 3
C) 4 $\times$ 3 $\times$ 2
D) 5 $\times$ 7 $\times$ 7

Answer 1

4 $\times$ 3 $\times$ 2

Question 2

Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:

A) lightly pigmented skin.
B) two testes per sac.
C) smooth scrotal sacs.
D) the left scrotal sac lower than the right.

Answer 2

the left scrotal sac lower than the right.

Question 3

While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that his penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

A) within normal limits.
B) suggestive of a skin fungus.
C) suggestive of psoriasis.
D) caused by excessive progesterone.

Answer 3

within normal limits.

Question 4

Inspection of the male urethral orifice requires the examiner to:

A) ask the patient to bear down.
B) insert a small urethral speculum.
C) press the glans between the thumb and forefinger.
D) transilluminate the penile shaft.

Question 5

Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal?

A) Umbilical
B) Direct
C) Indirect
D) Femoral

Question 6

Testicular temperature must be maintained lower than 37° C for which of the following to occur?

A) Penile erection
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Testosterone production
D) Rugae to form

Question 7

How much blood usually engorges the two corpora cavernosa of the penis when it is erect?

A) 5 to 15 mL
B) 20 to 50 mL
C) 55 to 60 mL
D) More than 100 mL

Question 8

The greatest contribution to the volume of ejaculate comes from the:

A) prostate.
B) epididymis.
C) seminal vesicles.
D) corpus cavernosa.

Question 9

Mr. Johnson is a 43-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you note that the urethral meatus opens on the ventral surface of his penis. You determine that he has which condition?

A) Epispadias
B) Hydrocele
C) Hypospadias
D) Normal variation

Question 10

Which structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

A) Epididymis
B) Prostate gland
C) Testicles
D) Vas deferens

Question 11

Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?

A) Circumcision
B) Condyloma acuminatum
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Poor hygiene

Question 12

Normally, the male urethral orifice is located:

A) 2 mm ventral to the tip of the glans.
B) on the dorsal surface of the glans.
C) cephalad to the dorsal vein.
D) adjacent to the prostate.

Question 13

Which penile structure should be visible to inspection during the physical examination?

A) Dorsal vein
B) Proximal urethral
C) Epididymis
D) Corpus cavernosa

Question 14

Which of the following hernias occurs more often in females and has the lowest incidence of occurrence?

A) Indirect
B) direct
C) femoral
D) ventral

Question 15

A finding associated with recurrent male genital herpes is:

A) disseminated lymphadenopathy.
B) pain subsiding with scrotal elevation.
C) soft, red papules on the prepuce.
D) superficial penile vesicles.

Question 16

The movement of the testes by muscular action regulates:

A) ejaculatory flow.
B) sebaceous production.
C) testicular temperature.
D) urinary flow.

Question 17

Expected genitalia changes that occur as men age include that:

A) the ejaculatory volume decreases with age.
B) erections develop more quickly.
C) the viability of sperm increases.
D) the scrotum becomes more pendulous.

Question 18

You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

A) chart the finding as paraphimosis.
B) inquire about previous penile infections.
C) retract the foreskin firmly.
D) transilluminate the glans.

Question 19

In an uncircumcised male, retraction of the foreskin may reveal a cheesy white substance. This is usually:

A) evidence of a fungal infection.
B) a collection of sebaceous material.
C) indicative of penile carcinoma.
D) suggestive of diabetes.

Question 20

Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

A) Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.
B) Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.
C) Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.
D) Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

Question 21

Pearly gray, smooth, dome-shaped, often umbilicated lesions of the glans penis are probably:

A) herpetic lesions.
B) condylomata.
C) molluscum contagiosum.
D) chancres.

Question 22

The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is:

A) hiatal.
B) incarcerated femoral.
C) indirect inguinal.
D) umbilical.

Question 23

Self-examination of the male genitalia:

A) should be restricted to adults with a prior cryptorchidism.
B) should be performed while bathing.
C) starts with palpation and then inspection.
D) should be performed yearly.

Question 24

Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult?

A) Cystitis
B) Epididymitis
C) Orchitis
D) Paraphimosis

Question 25

On palpation, a normal vas deferens should feel:

A) beaded.
B) smooth.
C) ridged.
D) spongy.

Question 26

Difficulty replacing the retracted foreskin of the penis to its normal position is called:

A) paraphimosis.
B) Peyronie disease.
C) phimosis.
D) priapism.

Question 27

Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?

A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Herpetic lesions
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 28

A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful on palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass transilluminates with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:

A) orchitis.
B) a hydrocele.
C) a rectocele.
D) a scrotal hernia.

Question 29

Which one of the following conditions is of minor consequence in an adult male?

A) Adhesions of the foreskin
B) Continuous penile erection
C) Lumps in the scrotal skin
D) Venous dilation in the spermatic cord

Question 30

An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your priority action should be to:

A) obtain urine and DNA probe urethral samples.
B) lift the left scrotum to confirm epididymitis.
C) establish absent cremasteric reflex.
D) transilluminate the left and right scrotum.

Question 31

An enlarged painless testicle in an adolescent or adult male may indicate:

A) epididymitis.
B) testicular torsion.
C) a tumor.
D) an undescended testicle.

Question 32

A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular:

A) dropping, with asymmetry.
B) enlargement.
C) insensitivity to painful stimulation.
D) recession into the abdomen.

Question 33

When examining a small child, in which position should he be placed to help push the testicles into the scrotum?

A) Supine
B) Tailor
C) Standing
D) Prone

Question 34

Parents of a 6-year-old boy should be asked if he has:

A) erections.
B) nocturnal emissions.
C) rapid detumescence.
D) scrotal swelling.

Question 35

The most common cancer in young men aged 15 to 30 years is:

A) testicular.
B) penile.
C) prostate.
D) anal.

Question 36

The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

A) painful, inflamed testicles.
B) deviation of the penis during erection.
C) lack of sexual interest.
D) painful lesions of the penis.

Question 37

You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of an adult male. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to:

A) use two fingers to attempt to reduce the mass.
B) palpate the left scrotum simultaneously.
C) lift the right testicle and then compare pain level.
D) transilluminate the mass.

Question 38

The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

A) testicular torsion.
B) epididymitis.
C) tumor.
D) hydrocele.

Question 39

Mr. L has an unusually thick scrotum, with edema and pitting. He has a history of cardiac problems. The appearance of his scrotum is most likely a(n):

A) congenital defect that has worsened.
B) indication of general fluid retention.
C) normal consequence of aging.
D) complication of the development of mumps.

Question 40

A premature infant's scrotum will appear:

A) bifid.
B) loose.
C) ridged.
D) smooth.

Question 41

A cremasteric reflex should result in:

A) testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.
B) penile deviation to the left side.
C) bilateral elevation of the scrotum.
D) immediate erection of the penis.

Question 42

Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by _____ weeks' gestation.

Question 43

A painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with a _________.