Deck 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

Question 1

Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?

A) plastic incise
B) thyroid
C) pediatric laparotomy
D) U-drape

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which countable sponge is used in oral procedures to prevent bone or tooth fragments and other foreign matter from becoming lodged in the pharynx?

A) Cottonoids
B) lap pads
C) throat pack
D) Weck-Cel

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?

A) crown
B) neck
C) root
D) socket

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which procedure is performed for removal of impacted wisdom teeth?

A) enucleation
B) extraction
C) mandibulectomy
D) odontectomy

Question 5

Which sequence of steps for plate fixation is CORRECT?

A) Drill all holes, place plate, tap, measure with depth gauge, and insert screws.
B) Drill all holes, place plate, measure with depth gauge, tap, and insert screws.
C) Place plate, drill one hole at a time, tap, measure with depth gauge, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.
D) Place plate, drill one hole at a time, measure with depth gauge, tap, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.

Question 6

What is the name of the narrow, double-angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures?

A) Minnesota
B) mouth prop
C) plastic cheek
D) Senn

Question 7

What is the MOST common position for patients undergoing oral and maxillofacial procedures?

A) supine with arms on armboards
B) supine with arms tucked in at sides
C) Trendelenberg with arms on armboards
D) Trendelenberg with arms tucked in at sides

Question 8

Which of the following statements regarding arch bars is CORRECT?

A) They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.
B) They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.
C) They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.
D) They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.

Question 9

How many craniofacial bones make up the orbit?

A) three
B) five
C) seven
D) nine

Question 10

All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:

A) H
B) L
C) W
D) Y

Question 11

A closed ventilation system and special endotracheal tube may be used in maxillofacial procedures to reduce risk of:

A) airway fire
B) aspiration
C) hyperthermia
D) obstruction

Question 12

Irrigation and what other item is used anytime the dental drill is used during odontectomy?

A) bone wax
B) ESU pencil
C) Ray-Tec 4 x 4
D) suction

Question 13

Which radiographic technique or view shows the alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and the zygomas?

A) AP
B) basal
C) PA
D) panoramic

Question 14

Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?

A) autograft
B) homograft
C) synthetic
D) xenograft

Question 15

Tapping of bone is done in fixation procedures to reduce:

A) number of screws needed
B) torque pressure on screws
C) size of fixation plate used
D) need to strip periosteum first

Question 16

The mandible articulates with which part of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

A) alveolar process
B) glenoid fossa
C) orbital floor
D) symphysis

Question 17

What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?

A) alveolar
B) buccal
C) labial
D) lingual

Question 18

Which of the following facial bones is the largest and strongest?

A) ethmoid
B) frontal
C) mandible
D) maxilla

Question 19

Which teeth are located in the center front of the mouth?

A) bicuspids
B) cuspids
C) incisors
D) molars

Question 20

Strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be prestretched and cut to which length?

A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 15 cm
D) 20 cm

Question 21

Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.

Question 22

Care must be taken when preauricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve?

A) third (III)
B) fifth (V)
C) seventh (VII)
D) eighth (VIII)

Question 23

Surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion?

A) jaw
B) nose
C) orbit
D) palate

Question 24

Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?

A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin

Question 25

Which bones of the face form the prominences of the cheeks?

A) mandible
B) nasal
C) vomer
D) zygomatic

Question 26

Patients treated for Le Fort type fractures may have extensive scarring and change in facial characteristics.

Question 27

Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.

Question 28

Which of the following is the MOST common type of midfacial fracture and is also known as a transmaxillary fracture?

A) Le Fort I
B) Le Fort II
C) Le Fort III
D) Le Fort IV

Question 29

Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?

A) frontalis
B) platysma
C) temporalis
D) sternocleidomastoid

Question 30

What other role is the surgical technologist often required to fill during oral and maxillofacial procedures?

A) anesthesia provider
B) assistant
C) circulator
D) radiology tech

Question 31

Which diameter fixation screw would MOST likely be used for a fracture of the mandible?

A) 1.0 mm
B) 2.0 mm
C) 3.0 mm
D) 4.0 mm

Question 32

Which of the following may be used as permanent support on top of the orbital floor following fixation of fracture?

A) arch bar
B) silastic sheeting
C) titanium plate
D) polymethyl methacrylate

Question 33

Which bone contributes to the posterior and inferior portion of the nasal septum?

A) mandible
B) nasal
C) vomer
D) zygoma

Question 34

Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

Question 35

Which of the following must accompany the patient to the PACU who has undergone maxillomandibular fixation?

A) mouth prop
B) wire cutters
C) throat pack
D) dental rolls

Question 36

What should the surgical technologist do before handing a retractor to the surgeon for use in orbital floor fracture?

A) Bend it to a curved configuration.
B) Lubricate it with mineral oil.
C) Pad it with a Cottonoid.
D) Moisten it with saline.

Question 37

Which of the following involves the highest portion of the midface and presents the most extensive damage?

A) Le Fort I
B) Le Fort II
C) Le Fort III
D) Le Fort IV

Question 38

The hard palate is the:

A) floor of the mouth
B) protrusion of the chin
C) roof of the mouth
D) separation of the nostrils

Question 39

Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.

Question 40

Which type of nonabsorbable maxillofacial implant used in fracture fixation is lightweight, noncorrosive, and strong?

A) copper
B) plastic
C) titanium
D) tungsten

Question 41

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Flat-topped teeth located posteriorly in the jaw, which break up food

Question 42

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Thickened ridge of bone that contains the sockets that bear the teeth of the upper and lower jaw

Question 43

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Any degree of irregular contact between the teeth of the upper and lower jaws; includes overbite or underbite

Question 44

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Angled retractor used for tongue and cheek retraction; shape is similar to a Harrington retractor

Question 45

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Soft, fibrous tissue that is continuous with the periodontal ligament and surrounds teeth; also known as the gums

Question 46

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Portion of the tooth that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue

Question 47

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
AP projection x-ray that shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma

Question 48

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Chief substance of teeth that is covered by enamel on the crown; harder than bone

Question 49

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Type of x-ray that shows on one film: alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and zygomas

Question 50

Match each term below with its description.
a.Gingiva
b.Enophthalmos
c.Panoramic
d.Pulp
e.Alveolar process
f.Weider
g.Dentin
h.Caldwell
i.Malocclusion
j.Molars
Recession of the eyeball within the bony orbit; may be a result of orbital fracture