Deck 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders

Question 1

Kraepelin's use of the term "dementia praecox," referred to ________

A) a single specific condition now known as schizophrenia.
B) a single specific condition now known as precocious dementia.
C) a group of conditions that all seemed to feature mental deterioration beginning early in life.
D) a group of conditions that all seemed to feature mental deterioration throughout the lifespan.

Answer 1

a group of conditions that all seemed to feature mental deterioration beginning early in life.

Question 2

The majority of cases of schizophrenia begin in ________

A) late adulthood or old age.
B) late adolescence or early adulthood.
C) late childhood or early adolescence.
D) infancy or early childhood.

Answer 2

late adolescence or early adulthood.

Question 3

Neuroimaging studies of hallucinating patients suggest that auditory hallucinations ________

A) are actually heard.
B) are usually drug induced.
C) may reflect a cognitive error.
D) activate the brain areas involved in speech comprehension.

Answer 3

may reflect a cognitive error.

Question 4

Kraepelin used the term "praecox" to convey that schizophrenia typically develops early in life. The actual age of onset of the condition in men typically is during the ________

A) early teenage years.
B) mid-twenties.
C) mid-thirties.
D) mid-forties.

Question 5

When Bleuler coined the term "schizophrenia," the kind of split he believed was central to the disorder was ________

A) a division of personality within the person.
B) a divergence between the person's chronological age and his or her intellectual performance.
C) an inability to make an intimate connection with other people.
D) a break with reality.

Question 6

What type of hallucinations are the most common?

A) Auditory
B) Tactile
C) Visual
D) Gustatory

Question 7

Psychosis is a striking and essential feature of schizophrenia. Psychosis means ________

A) a tendency to be unpredictably violent.
B) a significant loss of contact with reality.
C) an inability to know right from wrong.
D) an abrupt shift in personality from one pattern to another.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of the most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia?

A) Bill is convinced that his mother is inserting evil thoughts into his mind.
B) Sondra tries to ignore the voices in her head.
C) Ned believes he is Elvis.
D) Rachel sometimes thinks she sees her husband, even though he has been dead for several years.

Question 9

Hallucinations are ________

A) sensory experiences with no basis in reality.
B) only seen in schizophrenia.
C) necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
D) disturbances in the content of thought.

Question 10

People with schizophrenia may have difficulty with the form of thought-in other words, their thoughts do not make sense. The observable sign of this is ________

A) a delusion.
B) a hallucination.
C) disorganized speech.
D) disorganized behavior.

Question 11

Sterling believes that the TV special that was on last night was shown to tell her that she should break up with her boyfriend. She is absolutely certain this is true and plans to do it. This type of belief is an example of a ________

A) thought broadcasting delusion.
B) delusion of reference.
C) made feelings delusion.
D) thought insertion delusion.

Question 12

How common are delusions in schizophrenia?

A) They are experienced by approximately 50 percent of schizophrenics.
B) Delusions are an essential feature of schizophrenia; the presence of delusions is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
C) Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions.
D) While hallucinations are a common occurrence in schizophrenia, delusions are rare.

Question 13

The term "demence precoce" was used by Benedict Morel to describe schizophrenia and to also explain the ________

A) lack of brain damage that characterizes the brain of most schizophrenics.
B) effectiveness of psychological treatments for schizophrenia.
C) transient nature of most schizophrenias.
D) difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age.

Question 14

Schizophrenia occurs in about ________ of the general population.

A) 1 out of 1,000
B) 1 out of 100
C) 1 out of 10
D) 1 out of 10,000

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of a delusion?

A) Bob thought the CIA was controlling his thoughts.
B) The voices in Jaimie's head told him not to trust the priest.
C) Tracy did not think she could get pregnant the first time she had sex.
D) Carla saw and felt bugs crawling up her arm.

Question 16

For every three men diagnosed with schizophrenia, only two women are. Which of the following reasons might explain this?

A) Males are more likely to hallucinate than females so may be over diagnosed.
B) Men are more likely to seek treatment.
C) Females with schizophrenia have less severe symptoms so may be misdiagnosed.
D) Women respond better to treatment than men.

Question 17

Joe has a delusional belief. When people argue with him, ________

A) he admits he could be wrong.
B) he only admits he is wrong after being shown more proof than most people would need.
C) he doesn't admit he is wrong to other people, but he admits it to himself.
D) he doesn't admit he could be wrong, no matter what proof he is shown.

Question 18

"My father and I swiggered to the beach yesterday." This is an example of a ________

A) delusion.
B) auditory hallucination.
C) negative symptom.
D) neologism.

Question 19

Which of the following people has the highest risk of developing schizophrenia?

A) A person whose father was under 25 when he/she was born
B) A person whose mothwe was under 25 when he/she was born
C) A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born
D) A person whose mother was over 50 when he/she was born

Question 20

Delusions are ________

A) perceptions with no basis in reality.
B) only seen in schizophrenia.
C) necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
D) erroneous beliefs held despite clear contradictory evidence.

Question 21

Which of the following could be described as "short-term" schizophrenia?

A) Undifferentiated schizophrenia
B) Schizoaffective disorder
C) Delusional disorder
D) Schizophreniform disorder

Question 22

Moira is schizophrenic. When she watches a film clip designed to elicit a strong emotional response, the researchers note that ___________.

A) her face is less expressive than the control group, but she reports the same emotional responses
B) her face is less expressive than the control group, and she reports higher emotional responses..
C) her face is more expressive than the control group, but she reports the same emotional responses...
D) her face is more expressive than the control group, but she reports the same emotional responses.

Question 23

Negative symptoms are ________

A) those that are harmful.
B) more disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms.
C) a common side effect of antipsychotic medications.
D) characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.

Question 24

The inability to initiate or persist in goal-directed activity is called _________

A) alogia.
B) blunted affect.
C) delusions.
D) avolition.

Question 25

Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of ________

A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) schizoaffective disorder, manic type.
C) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
D) provisional schizophreniform disorder.

Question 26

Harold and Tanya both have a wide range of schizophrenic symptoms. Harold's symptoms have lasted for eight months; Tanya lasted only eight weeks before she recovered. According to the DSM-5, their diagnoses should be _________

A) schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya.
B) disorganized schizophrenia for Harold; schizophrenia for Tanya.
C) schizoaffective disorder for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya.
D) schizophreniform disorder for Harold; brief psychotic disorder for Tanya.

Question 27

DeJuan sometimes stands in the same strange posture for hours without moving or talking. This type of disorganized behavior is a symptom of _________

A) schizophrenia
B) schizoaffective disorder
C) schizotypal disorder
D) schizophreniform disorder

Question 28

Disorganized schizophrenia ________

A) is most commonly seen in women.
B) is characterized by disorganized speech.
C) usually develops in late adulthood.
D) responds well to treatment.

Question 29

Which of the following is likely a sign of disorganized schizophrenia?

A) Dillon believes he is God, but will respond to any direction he is given.
B) Peter appears to feel no emotion and tends to make odd facial expressions and movements.
C) Kyle constantly is asking for a doctor as he is convinced that his stomach is going to explode.
D) Trista fears for her life because the pictures on the wall have told her that she is not safe.

Question 30

Over the course of the disorder, most individuals with schizophrenia ________

A) show either positive-syndrome or negative-syndrome types.
B) show the Type II form exclusively.
C) develop the "disorganized" form of the disorder.
D) display a mix of positive and negative symptoms.

Question 31

Patients in a catatonic stupor ________

A) are highly suggestible.
B) experience overwhelming hallucinations.
C) exhibit both echopraxia and echolalia.
D) a virtual absence of all movement.

Question 32

There is some debate as to whether ________ is a variant of schizophrenia or a form of mood disorder.

A) residual type
B) schizoaffective disorder
C) schizophreniform disorder
D) undifferentiated type

Question 33

Which of the following statements is correct about changes for the diagnosis of schizophrenia in the DSM-5?

A) Schizophrenia will not be included in the DSM-5.
B) Subtypes of schizophrenia were removed but the diagnosis of schizophrenia will remain.
C) Only the paranoid subtype remains.
D) Only the catatonic subtype remains.

Question 34

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Julia heard voices that told her she was evil.
B) Karen no longer socialized with her friends.
C) Ellen suspected that her husband had poisoned her food.
D) Georgia's speech sounded normal, but made no sense.

Question 35

Julia clearly had psychotic symptoms. As she also showed symptoms of bipolar disorder, she was ultimately diagnosed with ________

A) residual type.
B) schizoaffective disorder.
C) schizophreniform disorder.
D) undifferentiated type.

Question 36

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?

A) Hallucinations
B) Emotional unresponsiveness
C) Emotional turmoil
D) Delusions

Question 37

Which of the following people is more likely exhibiting paranoid schizophrenia?

A) A teen who has been in a catatonic state for several days
B) A woman who believes she is being persecuted because she is Helen of Troy
C) A man who shows little emotion and makes no sense when he speaks
D) A mother of three who first showed signs of schizophrenia in her teens and now is unable to care for herself or her children.

Question 38

According to DSM-5, one criterion for a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder is ________

A) a single hallucinatory episode that lasts up to 24 hours.
B) a single episode of delusions concurrent with anxiety.
C) a major depressive or manic episode that is concurrent with Criterion A of schizophrenia.
D) a blood relative who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and another who has a mood disorder.

Question 39

The individual diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder ________

A) has a mild case of schizophrenia combined with signs of a mood disorder.
B) usually exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia that last for at least a month but less than 6 months.
C) is likely to take actions based on their delusions.
D) experiences a schizophrenia-like psychosis that lasts for less than a month.

Question 40

Which of the following is most likely seen in an individual with paranoid schizophrenia?

A) Delusions of reference
B) Primarily negative symptoms
C) More significant cognitive impairments than are seen in the other subtypes
D) Poor response to treatment

Question 41

"Familial" does not mean the same thing as "genetic" because ________

A) families don't always share genes.
B) families share both genes and the environment.
C) genes are not expressed in every generation.
D) the strength of the correlations seen in familial concordance patterns does not allow any conclusions to be made.

Question 42

Which of the following has been found to lead to an increased risk of developing schizophrenia?

A) Prenatal alcohol exposure.
B) Prenatal influenza exposure.
C) Alcohol use during middle adulthood.
D) Influenza exposure between ages 5 and 10.

Question 43

Which of the following is a plausible explanation for how maternal influenza might lead to schizophrenia later in life?

A) The flu virus may lie dormant in the brain until adolescence, when it becomes active and initiates the degeneration that results in the symptoms of schizophrenia.
B) The flu exposure may alter the fetal genes such that a susceptibility to schizophrenia is now part of the child's genetic makeup.
C) Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life.
D) The flu virus frequently has long-term effects on the behavior of affected individuals; maternal infection with influenza may result in an environment that is likely to trigger schizophrenia in the susceptible individual.

Question 44

The finding that prenatal viral exposure, rhesus incompatibility, and early nutritional deficiency are associated with an increased risk of developing schizophrenia indicates that ________

A) genes do not play a role in vulnerability to schizophrenia.
B) anything that interferes with normal brain development might lead to a greater risk of schizophrenia.
C) environmental factors are more important than genetic factors when it comes to determining who is likely to develop schizophrenia.
D) the results of twin studies reflect the impact of a shared prenatal environment, not shared genes.

Question 45

In genetic studies, a "proband" or "index case" is someone who ________

A) is related to someone with the disorder of interest.
B) shows signs of the disorder of interest.
C) shares at least 25 percent of his or her genes with an affected subject.
D) has the disorder of interest.

Question 46

A person who has experiences a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms that last a few days and then pass, often never to return, would be diagnosed with _________

A) temporary schizophreniform disorder.
B) brief psychotic disorder.
C) provisional schizophreniform disorder.
D) schizophrenia praecox.

Question 47

If schizophrenia were exclusively a genetic disorder, ________

A) anyone with schizophrenia in his or her family history would develop schizophrenia.
B) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent.
C) marrying a schizophrenic would not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia.
D) numerous cures would now be available.

Question 48

Adopted children who were at high risk for schizophrenia and who were raised in healthy families, ________

A) showed the same risk for schizophrenia as those adopted into dysfunctional families-genes were the most important factor.
B) showed higher risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families-they had trouble fitting in with the family.
C) showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families-a good environment may protect people with genetic vulnerabilities from developing schizophrenia.
D) showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families-the environment causes people to develop schizophrenia, not genes.

Question 49

The Finnish Adoptive Family Study of Schizophrenia determined that ________

A) the role of genes was found to be negligible.
B) index subjects were more likely to develop schizophrenia than the control subjects.
C) environment was found to be a more important determinant of psychological health than family history.
D) no significant effects were seen.

Question 50

Studies of family concordance patterns for schizophrenia have found ________

A) little evidence of increased concordance with increased gene-sharing.
B) such strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis that environmental factors have been ruled out.
C) strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis but only for males.
D) that the more genetically related you are to someone with schizophrenia, the greater your risk of the disorder.

Question 51

Communication deviance ________

A) may be an environmental risk factor for the development of schizophrenia.
B) is an early indication of schizophrenia.
C) is not seen in control adoptees.
D) and disordered speech are the same thing.

Question 52

Studies of the offspring of nonschizophrenic co-twins from discordant twin pairs suggest that ________

A) environmental factors play a more important role than genetic factors in the origin of schizophrenia.
B) genetic factors cause schizophrenia, while environmental factors are essentially unimportant.
C) a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia may remain unexpressed in some individuals unless it is released by some unknown environmental factors.
D) the heritability of schizophrenia involves the transmission of a single dominant gene.

Question 53

Lori just found out that she is pregnant. Her husband has schizophrenia. What is her unborn child's risk of developing schizophrenia?

A) 3 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 90 percent

Question 54

Adoption studies are typically used ________

A) to establish the primary role that the environment plays in most disorders.
B) to separate the effects of nature and nurture.
C) to assess the effectiveness of long-term treatment protocols.
D) in order to isolate the environmental factors that "trigger" a disorder.

Question 55

What is the major difference between a diagnosis of schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?

A) The presence of delusions and hallucinations
B) The age of the person when they develop the disorder
C) The degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people
D) The duration of symptoms

Question 56

The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for ________

A) not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia.
B) not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups.
C) only studying males.
D) not confirming the family history of the subjects.

Question 57

Both of Mary's parents have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Bob has an identical twin, who has schizophrenia. Who is more likely to develop schizophrenia and why?

A) Bob, because he is male and has a family history of schizophrenia.
B) Mary, because all of her genes come from her parents and they both have the disease.
C) Bob, because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing.
D) Mary, because females are more susceptible than males to the genetic forms of schizophrenia.

Question 58

Studies of adopted children who were at high-risk for developing schizophrenia found that which of the following appeared to increase the likelihood that these children would show high levels of thought disorders?

A) Vague, confusing, and unclear communication
B) Physical abuse
C) Permissive parenting
D) Divorce

Question 59

Most of the evidence suggests that schizophrenia runs in families. This means that schizophrenia ________

A) is definitely a genetic abnormality.
B) is definitely caused by a combination of genetic and environmental influences.
C) is definitely caused by environmental influences.
D) may be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental influences.

Question 60

Individuals with delusional disorder differ from those with schizophrenia in that ________

A) they behave relatively normally other than the delusions.
B) their delusions are not well-formed.
C) they know their delusions are delusions.
D) they rarely act on their delusions.

Question 61

Having basic problems in social cognition is one symptom associated with schizophrenia. Which of the following is an example of a lack of social cognition?

A) Picking up on implicit rules.
B) Being able to follow the speed limit.
C) Not being able to follow the speed limit.
D) Not being able to pick up on emotions associated with facial expressions.

Question 62

What is the value of research that monitors children at high risk for schizophrenia for a long time?

A) It can identify the specific genes responsible for the disorder.
B) It can identify factors that precede breakdown and aid in intervention efforts.
C) It can separate the impact of genetics from that of subtle neurological impairment.
D) It can identify the factors that improve treatment outcome.

Question 63

According to the diathesis-stress perspective, being at genetic risk ________

A) does seem to make people more susceptible to environmental insults.
B) affects some people while others are subject to environmental insults.
C) outweighs any environmental risk.
D) establishes a risk to environmental influences.

Question 64

What is attenuated psychoses syndrome?

A) Another name for schizophrenia
B) A form of delusional disorder that involves children
C) Mild psychotic symptoms that are not severe enough to meet clinical criteria for a full-blown psychotic disorder
D) A psychotic state in which the person having it has olfactory and gustatory hallucinations

Question 65

Why might Kraepelin's idea that schizophrenia was similar to dementia not be as far from the truth as previously thought?

A) Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia.
B) The symptoms of the two disorders overlap tremendously.
C) On autopsy, people with schizophrenia show the same smoothing of the brain as is seen in people with dementia.
D) The same biological treatments work for both disorders.

Question 66

The fact that a significant number of monozygotic twins share the same placenta, while no dizygotic twins do, suggests that ________

A) we may have overestimated the influence of genetics in schizophrenia.
B) being a monozygotic twin is a risk factor for schizophrenia.
C) genetic influences are even more important than previously thought.
D) monozygotic twins have a form of genetic schizophrenia while dizygotic twins have an environmentally caused form.

Question 67

On average about _________ schizophrenia brain and __________ healthy control brains are donated to the tissue brain bank maintained by the National Institute of Mental Health each year.

A) 50, 100
B) 90, 130
C) 9, 13
D) 100, 50

Question 68

How many schizophrenia samples were combined into a single analysis by the Schizophrenia Working Group of the Psychiatric Genomics Consortium?

A) 15
B) 1,500,000
C) 150,000
D) 1,500

Question 69

People who have had a hospital contact for a head injury have what percentage of an increase in their later risk for schizophrenia?

A) 97
B) 5
C) 200
D) 65

Question 70

Schizophrenia is best described as a ________

A) genetically influenced single gene disorder.
B) genetically influenced multiple gene disorder.
C) genetically determined single gene disorder.
D) genetically determined multiple gene disorder.

Question 71

What are endophenotypes?

A) Abnormally shaped cells in the brain
B) Neurotransmitters of slightly different chemical composition than normal
C) Discrete, stable, and measurable traits thought to be under genetic control
D) Specific chromosomes thought to be important in the genetic transmission of schizophrenia

Question 72

The latest research has demonstrated how many genetic loci associated with the presence of schizophrenia?

A) 18
B) 108
C) 180
D) 1080

Question 73

Compared to his nonschizophrenic identical twin, Matthew (who is schizophrenic) is more likely to ________

A) have been born with physical birth defects.
B) have demonstrated motor abnormalities.
C) have a higher intelligence level on IQ tests.
D) be artistically or musically talented.

Question 74

Very recent research suggests that having a lower IQ may itself be an independent ________

A) protection from developing schizophrenia.
B) risk factor for developing schizophrenia.
C) factor associated with delusional disorder.
D) factor associated with gaining hallucinations without delusions.

Question 75

Which of the following is a brain area that has been shown to be involved in schizophrenia?

A) Parietal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Hippocampus
D) Hypothalamus

Question 76

Ursula has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If PET scans were done to measure her brain's activity, which area would probably be underactive?

A) The visual cortex
B) The deepest portions of the brain, the medulla and reticular activating system
C) The frontal lobes
D) The hypothalamus and pituitary

Question 77

Based on current research, which statement can be justified?

A) Genetics play such a strong role, they are a sufficient condition for schizophrenia.
B) Genetics increase a person's vulnerability to develop schizophrenia.
C) Genetics may not be sufficient for schizophrenia, but everyone who develops schizophrenia must have some number of "schizophrenia genes."
D) Genetics cannot play a significant role in the cause of schizophrenia because most people with the disorder have no close relatives who have it.

Question 78

People with schizophrenia often show poor performance on tasks like the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task, which is thought to indicate a dysfunction of the ________

A) parietal lobe.
B) occipital lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) frontal lobe.

Question 79

The region of the brain known as the ________ (MHC) plays an important role in brain development and neuronal function.

A) monozygotic histamine center
B) major histocompatibility complex
C) minor hysterocompatible complex
D) monozygotic hysterocompatible center

Question 80

Based on developmental studies of children who later developed schizophrenia, ________

A) it is usually impossible to detect early signs of the disorder.
B) the first signs are usually delusions or hallucinations.
C) the first signs are usually seen in the way children move.
D) the first signs are usually seen in speech problems.