Deck 8: Performance Management

Question 1

The initial steps of the performance management cycle include the employee and manager identifying what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths.

Answer 1

False
Explanation: The final steps of the performance management cycle involve the employee and manager identifying what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths and address weaknesses and providing consequences for achieving performance outcomes.

Question 2

Quality-based performance methods are quite easy to develop and are generalizable across a variety of jobs, strategies, and organizations.

Answer 2

False
Explanation: Attribute-based performance methods are the most popular methods in organizations. They are quite easy to develop and are generalizable across a variety of jobs, strategies, and organizations.

Question 3

Result-based approaches to performance measurement assume that subjectivity can be eliminated from the measurement process.

Answer 3

True
Explanation: The results approach focuses on managing the objective, measurable results of a job or work group. This approach assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the measurement process and that results are the closest indicator of one's contribution to organizational effectiveness.

Question 4

Alternation ranking require managers to rank employees within their departments from highest performer to poorest performer.

Question 5

Comparative techniques of performance management virtually eliminate the problems of leniency, central tendency, and strictness.

Question 6

Behavior-based performance methods are the most popular performance evaluation approaches in organizations.

Question 7

Subordinates are the most frequently used source of performance information.

Question 8

The extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or adequate by those who use it is known as its acceptability.

Question 9

Acceptability is affected by the extent to which employees believe the performance management system is fair.

Question 10

A disadvantage of the result-based approaches to performance measurement is that individuals may focus only on aspects of their performance that are measured, neglecting those that are not.

Question 11

Visible support of the performance management process by the CEO and senior management ensures that the system is consistently used across the company.

Question 12

The best use of self-ratings is for administrative purposes.

Question 13

Competencies are sets of skills, knowledge, abilities, and personal characteristics that enable employees to successfully perform their jobs.

Question 14

A performance management system should link employee activities with the organization's goals. This is its developmental purpose.

Question 15

A behaviorally anchored rating scale is designed to specifically define performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with different levels of performance.

Question 16

Validity refers to the consistency of a performance measure.

Question 17

The assumption of Pareto analysis is that the majority of problems are the result of a small number of causes.

Question 18

Productivity measurement and evaluation system (ProMES)is designed to specifically define performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with different levels of performance.

Question 19

The quality approach relies primarily on a combination of the attribute and results approaches to performance measurement.

Question 20

An advantage of behaviorally anchored rating scales is increased interrater reliability.

Question 21

A university assesses its faculty members more on their research work than their teaching abilities. Which of the following measures of the performance management process is it using?

A)Deficient
B)Contaminated
C)Unreliable
D)Inconsistent
E)Unspecified

Question 22

Which of the following approaches to measuring performance uses some overall assessment of an individual's performance or worth and seeks to develop a ranking of the individuals within a work group?

A)The results approach
B)The attribute approach
C)The comparative approach
D)The consequential approach
E)The behavior approach

Question 23

Central tendency as a rating error reflects that a rater gives high ratings to all employees regardless of their performance.

Question 24

Once the expected performance has been defined and employees' performances have been measured, it is necessary to feed that performance information back to the employees so that they can correct any deficiencies.

Question 25

The process through which an organization gets information on how closely an employee's actual performance met the performance plan is _____.

A)performance appraisal
B)performance management
C)performance feedback
D)ability analysis
E)achievement discrepancy

Question 26

Which of the following fulfills the administrative purpose of performance management?

A)Define the results, behaviors, and, to some extent, employee characteristics that are necessary.
B)Develop employees who are effective at their jobs.
C)Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay raises, promotions, retention-termination, layoffs, and recognition of individual performance.
D)Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses, link employees to appropriate training and development activity.
E)Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.

Question 27

A measure that results in dramatically different ratings over time lacks _____.

A)internal consistency reliability
B)interrater reliability
C)parallel-forms reliability
D)test-retest reliability
E)inter-method reliability

Question 28

Appraisal politics refer to evaluators purposefully distorting a rating to achieve personal or company goals.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about acceptability is true?

A)It is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job performance that is consistent with the organization's strategy, goals, and culture.
B)It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed guidance to employees about what is expected of them and how they can meet these expectations.
C)It is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant-and only the relevant-aspects of job performance.
D)It is the degree to which a performance measure is free from random error.
E)It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or adequate by those who use it.

Question 30

A major advantage of the 360-degree appraisal is that it provides a means for minimizing bias in an otherwise subjective evaluation technique.

Question 31

_____ is the process of providing employees information regarding their performance effectiveness.

A)Performance appraisal
B)Achievement discrepancy
C)Performance management
D)Ability analysis
E)Performance feedback

Question 32

A(n)_____ measure evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance or aspects that are not job related.

A)unreliable
B)unacceptable
C)contaminated
D)inconsistent
E)unspecified

Question 33

_____ are factors in a company's business strategy that give it a competitive edge.

A)KRIs
B)CSFs
C)NDAs
D)KPIs
E)360-degree appraisals

Question 34

The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them is called _____.

A)reliability
B)validity
C)specificity
D)acceptability
E)strategic congruence

Question 35

_____ is the means through which managers ensure that employees' activities and outputs are congruent with the organization's goals.

A)Performance feedback
B)Performance results
C)Performance management
D)Performance appraisal
E)Performance strategy

Question 36

The consistency among the different individuals who evaluate the employee's performance is known as _____.

A)internal consistency reliability
B)interrater reliability
C)inter-method reliability
D)test-retest reliability
E)parallel-forms reliability

Question 37

Which performance management evaluation criterion is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant-and only the relevant-aspects of performance?

A)Reliability
B)Strategic congruence
C)Acceptability
D)Specificity
E)Validity

Question 38

_____ is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job performance that is consistent with the organization's strategy, goals, and culture.

A)Specificity
B)Reliability
C)Validity
D)Strategic congruence
E)Acceptability

Question 39

Output is a factor to consider in analyzing poor performance.

Question 40

Which of the following is the first step in the process of performance management?

A)Develop employee goals behavior, and actions to achieve outcomes.
B)Define performance outcomes for company division and department.
C)Provide consequences for performance results.
D)Identify the improvements needed.
E)Provide support and ongoing performance discussions.

Question 41

Which of the following is true regarding behavioral approaches to performance measurement?

A)They link strategy to specific behavior needed to implement strategy.
B)They do not provide specific guidance to employees regarding expected performance.
C)They result in techniques that have a low degree of validity and acceptability.
D)The approach assumes that there are multiple best ways to do the job.
E)Despite substantial investments in training, the techniques are not strong enough to be reliable.

Question 42

A(n)_____ identifies and provides descriptions of competencies that are common for an entire occupation, organization, job family, or a specific job.

A)OSI model
B)mixed-standard scale
C)behavioral observation scale
D)competency model
E)layered model

Question 43

The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the _____.

A)simple ranking method
B)behavioral observation scale
C)graphic rating scale
D)organizational behavior modification method
E)forced distribution scale

Question 44

Which of the following is an advantage of the results approach?

A)It can increase interrater reliability by providing a precise and complete definition of the performance dimension.
B)It provides a means for minimizing bias in an otherwise subjective evaluation technique.
C)It links an individual's results with the organization's strategies and goals.
D)It helps employees learn how they need to change their behavior to increase their performance.
E)It does not permit objective measurements to get contaminated or deficient.

Question 45

The technique that ranks employees into predetermined categories or groups according to performance is called _____.

A)forced distribution
B)high/low ranking system
C)paired comparison
D)strictness
E)simple ranking

Question 46

In the graphic rating scale, the manager:

A)defines performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with different levels of performance.
B)defines the relevant performance dimensions and then develops statements representing good, average, and poor performance along each dimension.
C)considers one employee at a time, circling the number that signifies how much of that trait the individual has.
D)identifies and provides descriptions of competencies that are common for an entire occupation, organization, job family, or a specific job.
E)is required to compare every employee with every other employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of 1 every time he or she is considered the higher performer.

Question 47

Which of the following is the first step in the ProMES system?

A)The staff defines indicators of the products to measure how well the products are being generated.
B)The management develops a feedback system that provides employees and work groups with information about their specific level of performance.
C)People in the organization identify the set of activities or objectives the organization expects to accomplish.
D)The employee and manager identify what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths.
E)The staff establishes the contingencies between the amount of the indicators and the level of evaluation associated with that amount.

Question 48

A performance management system designed with a strong quality orientation can be expected to:

A)emphasize an assessment of system factors in the measurement system, but not of the person factors.
B)emphasize that managers and employees work separately to solve performance problems.
C)involve only the external customers in setting standards and measuring performance.
D)use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors.
E)share the financial rewards of successes with employees according to how much they have contributed to them.

Question 49

The _____ assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the measurement process and that results are the closest indicator of one's contribution to organizational effectiveness.

A)behavior approach
B)results approach
C)attribute approach
D)quality approach
E)comparative approach

Question 50

Which of the following attribute approaches to performance management is most commonly used?

A)Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B)Mixed standard scales
C)Behavior observation scales
D)Graphic rating scales
E)Simple ranking scales

Question 51

Which of the following is a means of measuring and feeding back productivity information to personnel with the main goal of motivating employees to higher levels of productivity?

A)Management by objectives
B)ProMES
C)Assessment centers
D)Critical incidents
E)Multi-criteria decision analysis

Question 52

The _____ method requires managers to compare every employee with every other employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of 1 every time he/she is considered the high performer.

A)partner measurement
B)mixed-standard scales
C)forced distribution
D)paired comparison
E)alternate ranking

Question 53

Intech is a company that sells PCs and laptops. The company is projecting an increase in sales in the next six months and is looking at filling senior positions through internal recruiting to meet this demand. The company will evaluate individual performances and seek to develop some ranking of the individuals within a work group to identify the highest performer. This will help them arrive at a decision. Which of the following approaches is the company using?

A)The results approach
B)The attribute approach
C)The comparative approach
D)The behavioral approach
E)The quality approach

Question 54

Which of the following is true about the results approach to performance management?

A)The results approach relies primarily on a combination of the attribute and results approaches to performance measurement.
B)The results approach virtually eliminates problems of leniency, central tendency, and strictness.
C)The techniques of the results approach usually have very little congruence with the company's strategy.
D)The results approach is usually highly unacceptable to both managers and employees.
E)The results approach minimizes subjectivity, relying on objective, quantifiable indicators of performance.

Question 55

The _____ to performance management focuses on the extent to which individuals have certain characteristics or traits believed desirable for the company's success.

A)results approach
B)quality approach
C)behavioral approach
D)comparative approach
E)attribute approach

Question 56

Which of the following is true about the attribute approach to performance management?

A)There is usually high congruence between these techniques and the company's strategy.
B)These methods usually have very clear performance standards because of which different raters provide similar ratings and rankings.
C)They are easy to develop and are generalizable across organizations and strategies.
D)They provide specific guidance and feedback to employees.
E)These techniques tend to reduce defensiveness in employees during feedback.

Question 57

_____ consists of a manager looking at a list of employees, deciding who the best employee is, and crossing that person's name off the list.

A)Simple ranking
B)Alternation ranking
C)Reverse ranking
D)Probability distribution
E)Forced distribution

Question 58

Which performance management technique involves the identification of a large number of critical incidents, the classification of these incidents into performance dimensions, and the rank ordering of these incidents into levels of performance?

A)Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B)Graphic rating scales
C)Comparative rating scales
D)Organizational behavior modification
E)Competency models

Question 59

In which performance technique are managers given three statements of performance per dimension and asked to indicate whether the employee's performance is above (+), at (0), or below (-)the statements?

A)Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B)Forced distribution
C)Behavior observation scale
D)Graphic rating scale
E)Mixed-standard scale

Question 60

The techniques of which of the following approaches to performance management lack specificity for feedback purposes?

A)The quality approach
B)The comparative approach
C)The behavioral approach
D)The attribute approach
E)The results approach

Question 61

_____ refers to practices participated in by employees from all levels of the company that focus on continuous improvement of business processes.

A)Quality circle
B)Muda
C)Kaizen
D)Root cause analysis
E)Business process reengineering

Question 62

A _____ is a quality control technique that lists causes of a problem in decreasing order of importance.

A)cause-and-effect diagram
B)control chart
C)Pareto chart
D)process-flow analysis
E)histogram

Question 63

The _____ technique consists of having multiple raters provide input into a manager's evaluation.

A)employee integrity testing
B)background check
C)360-degree appraisal
D)upward feedback
E)performance appraisal

Question 64

Which of the following approaches to performance measurement minimizes contamination and deficiency?

A)The comparative approach
B)The attribute approach
C)The behavioral approach
D)The results approach
E)The quality approach

Question 65

_____ is described as a rater error that occurs when one rates those who are comparable to themselves in the immediate work group higher than those who are not.

A)Contrast
B)Distributional error
C)Halo/horns
D)Leniency
E)Similar to me

Question 66

Which of the following rater errors is based on stereotypes the rater has about how individuals with certain characteristics are expected to perform?

A)Horns
B)Similar to me
C)Halo
D)Contrast
E)Central tendency

Question 67

Which quality control technique is useful for understanding the amount of variance between an outcome and the expected value or average outcome?

A)A control chart
B)A histogram
C)A cause-and-effect diagram
D)A process-flow analysis
E)A Pareto chart

Question 68

Which of the following is true about the quality approach to performance measurement?

A)The quality approach techniques usually have very little congruence with the strategic goals of an organization.
B)The quality approach has very low acceptability because they are usually developed without input from those to be evaluated.
C)The quality approach advocates evaluation of personal traits, which are easier to relate to job performance.
D)The quality approach adopts a systems-oriented focus, while traditional performance appraisal systems focus more on individual employee performance.
E)The quality approach relies primarily on a combination of the behavior and results approaches to performance measurement.

Question 69

_____ are a valuable source of performance information when managers are being evaluated and often have the best opportunity to evaluate how well a manager treats employees.

A)Supervisors
B)Subordinates
C)Directors
D)Customers
E)Peers

Question 70

A competent employee receives lower-than-deserved ratings because of few outstanding colleagues who set very-high performance standards. This is an example of _____ rater error.

A)contrast
B)distributional
C)halo
D)similar to me
E)horns

Question 71

Advocates of the quality approach believe that most U.S. companies' performance management systems are incompatible with the quality philosophy for a number of reasons. Which one of the following is among these reasons?

A)Most existing systems measure performance in terms of quality, not quantity.
B)They involve both internal and external customers in setting standards and measuring performance.
C)Companies share financial rewards of successes with employees according to how much they have contributed to them.
D)Rewards are connected to business results and profits.
E)Employees are held accountable for good or bad results to which they contribute but do not completely control.

Question 72

Which of the following sets of approaches to performance measurement have very similar levels of performance measure criteria?

A)Comparative and attribute
B)Attribute and behavioral
C)Behavioral and comparative
D)Results and quality
E)Attributes and results

Question 73

Which of the following observations is true about scattergrams?

A)They help in identifying the most important cause of a problem.
B)They are useful for understanding the amount of variance between an outcome and the expected value or average outcome.
C)They help employees determine whether the relationship between two variables or events is positive, negative, or zero.
D)They assume that that the majority of problems are the result of a small number of causes.
E)They are useful for identifying redundancy in processes that increase manufacturing or service time.

Question 74

Both, the comparative and the attribute approaches to performance measurement are _____.

A)high on strategic congruence
B)very low on specificity
C)low on acceptability
D)high on reliability
E)very high on validity

Question 75

Which of the following is a disadvantage of subordinate evaluations?

A)Subordinates tend to focus only on aspects of their manager's performance that are measured, neglecting those that are not.
B)Subordinates do not have adequate opportunity to observe a manager's interactions and behavior.
C)Subordinate ratings have the potential for friendship to bias ratings.
D)Subordinate evaluations give subordinates power over their managers, thus putting the manager in a difficult situation.
E)Subordinates find the situation of being both rater and ratee uncomfortable when the evaluations are made for administrative decisions.

Question 76

Which of the following is true of peers as the source for performance information?

A)Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and often have the most opportunity to observe the employee in day-to-day activities.
B)Peer evaluations give employees power over their managers, thus putting the manager in a difficult situation.
C)Peers are comfortable providing evaluations for both administrative and developmental purposes.
D)Peers have the ability to discard the fact that they may be friends with the ratees in order to provide an unbiased rating.
E)Feedback from peers is strongly related to performance and to employee perceptions of the accuracy of the appraisal.

Question 77

Which of the following statistical process quality control techniques helps identify redundancies in jobs that increase manufacturing or service time?

A)Cause-and-effect diagrams
B)Control charts
C)Pareto charts
D)Process-flow analysis
E)Histograms

Question 78

_____ are the most frequently used source of performance information.

A)Peers
B)Managers
C)Subordinates
D)Employees themselves
E)Customers

Question 79

_____ refers to appraisals that involve collecting subordinates' evaluations of manager's behavior or skills.

A)360-degree feedback
B)Screening interviews
C)Performance feedback
D)Kaizen
E)Upward feedback

Question 80

_____ is a rater error in which the rater gives high ratings to all employees regardless of their performance.

A)Halo
B)Contrast
C)Central tendency
D)Leniency
E)Similar to me