Deck 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Deck 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
1
Which term describes a fusion of one or more sutures of the skull?
A) Microsomia
B) Coloboma
C) Craniosynostosis
D) Microtia
A) Microsomia
B) Coloboma
C) Craniosynostosis
D) Microtia
C
Craniosynostosis is a defect that can be unilateral or bilateral and cause facial abnormalities and increased intracranial pressure.
Craniosynostosis is a defect that can be unilateral or bilateral and cause facial abnormalities and increased intracranial pressure.
2
Which type of tympanoplasty is a closure of a perforated tympanic membrane with erosion of the malleus?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
B
A type II tympanoplasty is a closure of the perforated tympanic membrane with erosion of the malleus.The graft used is placed against the incus or remains on the malleus.
A type II tympanoplasty is a closure of the perforated tympanic membrane with erosion of the malleus.The graft used is placed against the incus or remains on the malleus.
3
Which type of anesthesia agent is contraindicated while placing a graft in the middle ear?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Lidocaine and epinephrine
D) Nitrous oxide
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Lidocaine and epinephrine
D) Nitrous oxide
D
Nitrous oxide can diffuse into cavities and may cause expansion of the middle ear.Nitrous oxide is to be discontinued prior to placing a graft in a middle ear to minimize the risk of increased pressure in the inner ear.
Nitrous oxide can diffuse into cavities and may cause expansion of the middle ear.Nitrous oxide is to be discontinued prior to placing a graft in a middle ear to minimize the risk of increased pressure in the inner ear.
4
The internal receiver of a cochlear bone conduction implant is implanted over the:
A) zygomatic bone.
B) temporal bone.
C) parotid gland.
D) middle turbinate bone.
A) zygomatic bone.
B) temporal bone.
C) parotid gland.
D) middle turbinate bone.
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5
A Le Fort III fracture involves a transverse fracture of the maxilla,which results in a fragmentation of the palate and upper alveoli.
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6
Which type of mastoidectomy removes air cells using a small burr by opening the mastoid process behind the ear?
A) Simple mastoidectomy
B) Modified radical mastoidectomy
C) Radical mastoidectomy
D) Simple mastectomy
A) Simple mastoidectomy
B) Modified radical mastoidectomy
C) Radical mastoidectomy
D) Simple mastectomy
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7
What kind of craniofacial defect is characterized by an abnormal increase in the bony distance between the eyes?
A) Treacher Collins syndrome
B) Apert syndrome
C) Crouzon disease
D) Hypertelorism
A) Treacher Collins syndrome
B) Apert syndrome
C) Crouzon disease
D) Hypertelorism
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8
What area of the pharynx is in the middle?
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Hypopharynx
D) Hyperpharynx
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Hypopharynx
D) Hyperpharynx
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9
Even though the mouth is not a sterile area,it is preferable to use sterile equipment and a sterile technique.
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10
In a case involving the ear,nose,or throat,the laser of choice to shrink or debulk a tissue by use of coagulation would be a:
A) CO₂ laser.
B) Nd:YAG laser.
C) KTP laser.
D) Argon beam laser.
A) CO₂ laser.
B) Nd:YAG laser.
C) KTP laser.
D) Argon beam laser.
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11
Because the nasal cavity is considered unsterile,instruments entering this cavity do not have to be sterile,but can be simply clean.
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12
Which procedure involves the removal of the fixed footplate?
A) Partial stapedectomy
B) Total stapedectomy
C) Stapedotomy
D) Left stapedectomy
A) Partial stapedectomy
B) Total stapedectomy
C) Stapedotomy
D) Left stapedectomy
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13
Which anatomic structure lies between the hypopharynx superiorly and the trachea inferiorly?
A) Larynx
B) Thyroid gland
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Pharynx
A) Larynx
B) Thyroid gland
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Pharynx
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14
Name the type of voice prosthesis that has a diaphragm that opens during normal respiration and closes for speech.
A) Blom-Singer duckbill prosthesis
B) Panje prosthesis
C) Blom-Singer tracheostoma valve
D) Panie-Biflanged prosthesis
A) Blom-Singer duckbill prosthesis
B) Panje prosthesis
C) Blom-Singer tracheostoma valve
D) Panie-Biflanged prosthesis
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15
Which type of instrument is used to dilate an esophageal stricture?
A) Esophageal lumen
B) Bougies
C) Obturator
D) Anode tube
A) Esophageal lumen
B) Bougies
C) Obturator
D) Anode tube
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16
Which of the following is a test of hearing sensitivity?
A) Acoustical radiogram test
B) Acoustic reflex latency test
C) Audio refractive potential test
D) Auditory brainwave test
A) Acoustical radiogram test
B) Acoustic reflex latency test
C) Audio refractive potential test
D) Auditory brainwave test
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17
A nasal fracture needs to be repaired immediately after the trauma to avoid malunion or nonunion.
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18
A vertical hemilaryngectomy involves a vertical incision with the removal of both true vocal cords and the entire thyroid gland.
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19
Which procedure removes the anterior frontal sinus wall through an external excision above the eye?
A) Osteoplastic flap procedure
B) Caldwell-Luc procedure
C) Killian procedure
D) Turbinectomy
A) Osteoplastic flap procedure
B) Caldwell-Luc procedure
C) Killian procedure
D) Turbinectomy
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20
What type of procedure involves the removal of the tongue and the use of a free flap?
A) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B) Glossectomy
C) Laryngectomy
D) Mucogingivoplasty
A) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B) Glossectomy
C) Laryngectomy
D) Mucogingivoplasty
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21
Which is a type of major salivary glands?
A) Suboral
B) Subarticular
C) Submandibular
D) Suborbital
A) Suboral
B) Subarticular
C) Submandibular
D) Suborbital
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22
From what area is autograft frequently taken for a mandibular reconstruction?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Ilium
D) Tibia
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Ilium
D) Tibia
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23
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Enlarged uvula and soft palate
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Enlarged uvula and soft palate
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24
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Removal of tongue
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Removal of tongue
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25
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve
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26
Which is a diagnostic tool used to determine the extent of a craniofacial deformity?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Manual sketches of the facial formations
D) PET scan
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Manual sketches of the facial formations
D) PET scan
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27
Which type of bite disorder presents as a receding chin when one or both jaws are more posterior?
A) Retrognathism
B) Prognathism
C) Apertognathism
D) Micrognathism
A) Retrognathism
B) Prognathism
C) Apertognathism
D) Micrognathism
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28
Which is one risk of parotid gland surgery?
A) Recurrence
B) Mandibular infection
C) Suboral malocclusion
D) Facial nerve injury
A) Recurrence
B) Mandibular infection
C) Suboral malocclusion
D) Facial nerve injury
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29
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Ossification of middle ear bones
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Ossification of middle ear bones
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30
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Endolymphatic deafness
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Endolymphatic deafness
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31
Which area of the ear is responsible for conductive hearing loss?
A) Pinna
B) Middle ear
C) Inner ear
D) Cochlea
A) Pinna
B) Middle ear
C) Inner ear
D) Cochlea
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32
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Caused by otitis media
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Caused by otitis media
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33
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Nosebleed
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Nosebleed
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34
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Inflammation of middle ear
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Inflammation of middle ear
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35
Which is a sign and symptom of an acoustic neuroma?
A) External ear pain
B) Bilateral hearing loss
C) Increased hearing sensitivity
D) Mild vertigo
A) External ear pain
B) Bilateral hearing loss
C) Increased hearing sensitivity
D) Mild vertigo
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36
Which is one of the three anatomic areas of the ear?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) External
D) Lower
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) External
D) Lower
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37
MATCHING
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Bone tumor
Match each condition with its definition.
a.Oropharynx obstruction
b.Mastoiditis
c.Osteoma
d.Otitis media
e.Sensorineural deficit
f.Acoustic neuroma
g.Epistaxis
h.Otosclerosis
Bone tumor
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38
Which of the following is a cause of hearing loss?
A) West Nile virus
B) Mastoiditis
C) Endolymph
D) Parotiditis
A) West Nile virus
B) Mastoiditis
C) Endolymph
D) Parotiditis
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39
Which is a potential complication of a thyroidectomy?
A) Decreased visual acuity
B) Increased calcium levels
C) Decreased muscle rigidity
D) Glottis edema
A) Decreased visual acuity
B) Increased calcium levels
C) Decreased muscle rigidity
D) Glottis edema
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40
Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ____________________ and their face covered with a ____________________.
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41
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Inflamed salivary gland
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Inflamed salivary gland
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42
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Wide space between orbits
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Wide space between orbits
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43
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Inflamed closure of vocal cords
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Inflamed closure of vocal cords
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44
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Jaw misalignment
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Jaw misalignment
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45
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Fractured cheekbone
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Fractured cheekbone
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46
33.Match each condition with its definition.
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Temporomandibular syndrome
a.Hypertelorism
b.Malar fracture
c.Articular joint dysfunction
d.Malocclusion
e.Parotiditis
f.Glossectomy
g.Epiglottitis
Temporomandibular syndrome
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