Deck 12: Drug Therapy for Cardiovascular Disorders
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Deck 12: Drug Therapy for Cardiovascular Disorders
1
Arteriosclerosis commonly occurs in older individuals and:
A) hypertrophy of the prostate gland
B) head trauma
C) diabetic patients
D) lung cancer
A) hypertrophy of the prostate gland
B) head trauma
C) diabetic patients
D) lung cancer
diabetic patients
2
Decubitus angina is also called:
A) nocturnal angina
B) silent angina
C) unstable angina
D) classic angina
A) nocturnal angina
B) silent angina
C) unstable angina
D) classic angina
nocturnal angina
3
Which of the following medications were the first agents used to relieve angina?
A) calcium channel blockers
B) ? -adrenergic blockers
C) ?-adrenergic blockers
D) nitrates
A) calcium channel blockers
B) ? -adrenergic blockers
C) ?-adrenergic blockers
D) nitrates
?-adrenergic blockers
4
Which of the following is the most common route of administration for nitroglycerin?
A) buccal
B) sublingual
C) oral
D) transdermal patch
A) buccal
B) sublingual
C) oral
D) transdermal patch
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5
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of beta blockers in the heart muscle?
A) They increase oxygen demand.
B) They decrease oxygen demand.
C) They decrease blood calcium.
D) They increase blood pressure.
A) They increase oxygen demand.
B) They decrease oxygen demand.
C) They decrease blood calcium.
D) They increase blood pressure.
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6
The mechanisms of action of calcium channel blockers include all of the following, except:
A) They inhibit the entry of calcium into smooth muscle cells.
B) They inhibit the entry of calcium into myocytes.
C) They produce arterial vasoconstriction.
D) They produce arterial vasodilation.
A) They inhibit the entry of calcium into smooth muscle cells.
B) They inhibit the entry of calcium into myocytes.
C) They produce arterial vasoconstriction.
D) They produce arterial vasodilation.
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7
Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are called:
A) calcium channel blockers
B) sodium channel blockers
C) potassium channel blockers
D) ? -adrenergic blockers
A) calcium channel blockers
B) sodium channel blockers
C) potassium channel blockers
D) ? -adrenergic blockers
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8
Which of the following is an example of the subgroup of fast channel blockers (IA)?
A) procainamide
B) lidocaine
C) tocainide
D) flecainide
A) procainamide
B) lidocaine
C) tocainide
D) flecainide
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9
Verapamil is an example of:
A) class I antiarrhythmic drugs
B) class II antiarrhythmic drugs
C) class III antiarrhythmic drugs
D) class IV antiarrhythmic drugs
A) class I antiarrhythmic drugs
B) class II antiarrhythmic drugs
C) class III antiarrhythmic drugs
D) class IV antiarrhythmic drugs
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10
Quinidine is an agent used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias, is an antipyretic, has oxytocic actions, and is also an:
A) anti-inflammatory
B) antimalarial
C) anticoagulant
D) none of the above
A) anti-inflammatory
B) antimalarial
C) anticoagulant
D) none of the above
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11
Digitalis drugs are the principal medications for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
A) ventricular septal defect
B) patent ductus arteriosus
C) hypertension
D) congestive heart failure
A) ventricular septal defect
B) patent ductus arteriosus
C) hypertension
D) congestive heart failure
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12
Quinidine can lead to skeletal muscle weakness, especially in patients with:
A) peptic ulcer
B) myasthenia gravis
C) iron deficiency anemia
D) skull fracture
A) peptic ulcer
B) myasthenia gravis
C) iron deficiency anemia
D) skull fracture
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13
The common adverse effects of phenytoin (Dilantin ) include which of the following?
A) nystagmus, blurred vision, and hyperplasia of the gums
B) dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation
C) bronchospasm, bradycardia, and dry mouth
D) urinary retention, irreversible heart failure, and drug-induced lupus syndrome
A) nystagmus, blurred vision, and hyperplasia of the gums
B) dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation
C) bronchospasm, bradycardia, and dry mouth
D) urinary retention, irreversible heart failure, and drug-induced lupus syndrome
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14
Which of the following drugs are class III antiarrhythmic agents (potassium channel blockers)?
A) lidocaine and phenytoin
B) atenolol and nadolol
C) amiodarone and bretylium
D) verapamil and digoxin
A) lidocaine and phenytoin
B) atenolol and nadolol
C) amiodarone and bretylium
D) verapamil and digoxin
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15
Which of the following is the cure for heart failure?
A) cardiac glycosides
B) diuretics
C) vasodilators
D) no cure is available
A) cardiac glycosides
B) diuretics
C) vasodilators
D) no cure is available
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16
Which of the following drugs act by increasing the force and velocity of myocardial systolic contraction?
A) cardiac glycosides
B) diuretics
C) vasodilators
D) anti-inflammatory drugs
A) cardiac glycosides
B) diuretics
C) vasodilators
D) anti-inflammatory drugs
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17
After the container of nitroglycerin is opened, the drug is effective for approximately:
A) 3 days
B) 6 weeks
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
A) 3 days
B) 6 weeks
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
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18
If coronary blood flow is significantly obstructed by atherosclerotic plaques, a patient is most likely to develop symptoms of:
A) hypertension
B) pulmonary edema
C) headaches
D) angina
A) hypertension
B) pulmonary edema
C) headaches
D) angina
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19
Abrupt discontinuation of long-acting nitroglycerin preparations may cause:
A) pulmonary edema
B) hypertension
C) angina
D) glaucoma
A) pulmonary edema
B) hypertension
C) angina
D) glaucoma
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20
Which of the following is the most dangerous adverse effect of digoxin?
A) drowsiness and diplopia
B) dysrhythmias
C) hyperkalemia
D) hyperglycemia
A) drowsiness and diplopia
B) dysrhythmias
C) hyperkalemia
D) hyperglycemia
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21
Atrial fibrillation may cause more than ____________________ heartbeats per minute.
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22
The presence of atheromas in the arteries is called ____________________.
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23
There are four types of angina, which include: stable (classic), unstable, decubitus (nocturnal), and ____________________ angina.
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24
Nitrate drugs should be used cautiously in severe liver or ____________________ disease.
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25
In myocardial infarction, pain relief is best achieved with oxygen, nitroglycerin, and ____________________.
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26
Decubitus angina is also known as __________ angina.
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27
Nitrates are still an important part of __________ therapy.
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28
The sites of topical ointment of nitroglycerin should be rotated to prevent local __________.
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29
Abrupt discontinuation of long-acting nitroglycerin preparations may cause __________.
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30
A combination of nitrates and sildenafil (Viagra) can cause potentially life-threatening __________.
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31
Calcium channel blockers __________ myocardial contractility.
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32
Diltiazem and verapamil are examples of __________ channel blockers.
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33
Myocardial infarction is produced by an obstruction of the __________ artery.
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34
Pain relief from coronary artery disease is best achieved with oxygen, nitroglycerin, and __________.
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35
The goal of treatment of dysrrhythmia is to __________ normal cardiac function.
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36
Verapamil works on the SA node to __________ its activity.
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37
The margin between effective therapy of digoxin and dangerous toxicity is very __________.
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38
Rapid infusion of quinidine may cause severe __________ and shock.
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39
Drugs used for heart failure include ACE inhibitors, vasodilators, cardiac glycosides, and __________.
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40
Cardiac glycosides act by __________ the force and velocity of myocardial systolic contraction.
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41
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-diltiazem
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
-diltiazem
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
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42
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-disopyramide
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
-disopyramide
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
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43
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-propranolol
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
-propranolol
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
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44
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-nifedipine
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
-nifedipine
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
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45
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-nadolol
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
-nadolol
A)Inderal
B)Corgard
C)Norpace
D)Procardia
E)Cardizem
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46
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-amlodipine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
-amlodipine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
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47
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-moricizine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
-moricizine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
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48
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-nicardipine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
-nicardipine
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
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49
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-bepridil
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
-bepridil
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
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50
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-acebutolol
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
-acebutolol
A)Cardene
B)Vascor
C)Sectral
D)Norvasc
E)Ethmozine
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