Deck 13: Payments Ras, Appeals, and Secondary Claims

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Question
The __________ verifies the medical necessity of providers' reported procedures.

A) claims processor
B) physician
C) claims examiner
D) auditor
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Question
A payer's initial claim review may reject a claim due to

A) utilization review.
B) an invalid policy number.
C) lack of medical necessity.
D) noncovered services.
Question
The first step the medical billing specialist should check when reviewing RAs is to

A) check each payment.
B) start the appeals process.
C) call or email the payer with identified problems.
D) match up claims with the RA using the unique claim control number.
Question
Which of these HIPAA transactions is sent by a payer to answer a question about a submitted claim?

A) 277
B) 837
C) 835
D) 276
Question
Which of these HIPAA transactions is sent by a payer to explain a claim payment?

A) 276
B) 277
C) 835
D) 837
Question
What may result from a lack of clear, correct linkage between the diagnosis and the procedure?

A) initial processing
B) medical necessity denial
C) redetermination
D) manual review
Question
What is the claim status when the payer is developing the claim?

A) development
B) determination
C) suspended
D) concurrent care
Question
RA is the abbreviation for

A) remittance advice.
B) results advice.
C) remittance allowed.
D) results allowed.
Question
On an aging report, which category describes a current invoice?

A) 61-90 days
B) 31-60 days
C) over 90 days
D) 0-30 days
Question
What happens if a provider does not provide an itemized statement to the Medicare beneficiary upon his/her request within thirty days?

A) The provider may be fined $100 per outstanding request.
B) Nothing because providers are not required to provide Medicare beneficiaries itemized statements.
C) The practice is closed for failure to respond.
D) The Medicare beneficiary is required to request an itemized statement again after thirty days.
Question
Claim adjustment reason codes are used by payers to explain entries on

A) HIPAA 277 transactions.
B) denials.
C) RAs.
D) aging reports.
Question
The person filing an appeal is known as a(n) __________, regardless of whether that individual is a provider or a patient.

A) either the claimant or the appellant
B) claimant
C) griever
D) appellant
Question
Remittance advice remark codes are maintained by __________ but can be used by all payers.

A) QIO
B) CMS
C) HIPAA
D) OIG
Question
Filing a grievance with the state insurance commission requires the __________ to investigate the complaint.

A) county
B) state
C) federal government
D) city
Question
Funds that are electronically transferred from a payer are directly deposited in the

A) fiscal intermediaries account.
B) physician's bank account.
C) patient's bank account.
D) practice's bank account.
Question
The term __________ during claim adjudication means that the payer needs more information to process the claim.

A) redetermination
B) suspended
C) determination
D) development
Question
Prompt-pay laws govern

A) physicians to pay pharmacies for medications.
B) patients to pay physicians for services.
C) physician practice payments of their suppliers' invoices.
D) insurance carriers' payments of providers' claims.
Question
Which of these codes might payers use to explain a determination?

A) claim adjustment group code
B) all of these answers are correct
C) remittance advice remark code
D) claim adjustment reason code
Question
A paper explanation of benefits (EOB) is sent to patients by payers after claims

A) are submitted.
B) are adjudicated.
C) are paid.
D) are denied.
Question
An aging report groups unpaid claims or bills according to

A) the amount of time left to pay.
B) the length of time that they remain due.
C) aging reports are not grouped together.
D) the amount of money due.
Question
Which of the following statements is true?

A) Either Medicare or Medicaid can be the secondary payer, as it will depend on the patient's plans.
B) Neither Medicare nor Medicaid will be the secondary payer.
C) Medicaid is the secondary payer to Medicare.
D) Medicare is the secondary payer to Medicaid.
Question
A typical aging report groups payments that are due into which of these categories?

A) 0-30 days, 31-60 days, 61-90 days, 91-120 days, and over 121 days
B) 0-60 days, 61-120 days, 121-180 days, over 180 days
C) 0-15 days, 16-30 days, 31-45 days, 45-60 days
D) 0-45 days, 46-90 days, 91-135 days, over 135 days
Question
During the adjudication process, if there are problems during the automated review, the claim is pulled for

A) determination.
B) development.
C) suspension.
D) pending status.
Question
A list of claims transmitted and how long they have been in process with the payer is shown in the

A) insurance log.
B) redetermination list.
C) insurance aging report.
D) patient aging report.
Question
If a Medicare beneficiary is employed and covered by the employer's group health plan, the Medicare plan is

A) neither primary nor secondary.
B) primary.
C) secondary.
D) either primary or secondary.
Question
Claim adjustment reason codes are found on

A) the insurance aging report.
B) RAs.
C) accounts receivable reports.
D) the patient medical record.
Question
From the payer's point of view, __________ are improper or excessive payments resulting from billing errors for which the provider owes refunds.

A) grievances
B) overpayments
C) claimants
D) errors
Question
Medical situations in which a patient receives extensive care from two or more providers on the same date of service are called

A) bundled care.
B) E/M services.
C) global period servicers.
D) concurrent care.
Question
If a medical practice believes that it has been treated unfairly by an insurance company, it has the right to file a __________ with the state insurance commission.

A) claim
B) lawsuit
C) complaint
D) grievance
Question
What kind of code appears on payers' electronic reports on the progress of transmitted claims in their adjudication process?

A) remittance advice remark codes
B) MOA remark codes
C) claim status category codes
D) claim adjustment reason codes
Question
The __________ of a claim refers to the payer's decision regarding payment.

A) determination
B) redetermination
C) autoposting
D) claimant
Question
__________ follow up on claims that are not processed within the specified claim turnaround time for the payer.

A) Medical insurance specialists
B) Medical coders
C) Medical technicians
D) Physicians
Question
Minor errors found by the practice on transmitted claims require which of the following?

A) corrections by asking the payer to reopen the claim and make the changes
B) corrections by asking the payer to adjust the charges
C) a denial
D) a completely new claim to be filed
Question
The payer sends the medical practice

A) a separate RA and an individual EOB for each claim processed.
B) only an RA upon request.
C) a separate RA for each processed claim.
D) an RA that covers a batch of processed claims.
Question
An insurance aging report lists

A) amounts patients still owe the physician.
B) unpaid claims transmitted to payers by the length of time they remain due.
C) the practice's patients, their insurance information, and their ages.
D) the amount of supplies the practice needs to pay for.
Question
When a claim is pulled by a payer for a manual review, the provider may be asked to submit

A) revised procedure codes.
B) clinical documentation.
C) a new diagnosis.
D) revised charges.
Question
How often are claim adjustment reason codes and remark codes updated?

A) annually
B) three times per year
C) quarterly
D) never
Question
A(n) __________ claim status category code is an acknowledgment that the claim has been received.

A) P
B) F
C) E
D) A
Question
RAs generally have information on any

A) errors on the listed claims.
B) all of these are correct.
C) adjustments to the listed claims.
D) denials to the listed claims.
Question
A medical practice may choose to __________ a rejected or partially paid claim.

A) appeal
B) neither resubmit nor appeal
C) either appeal or resubmit
D) resubmit
Question
If Medicare is the secondary payer, the claim must be submitted using the

A) HIPAA 276/277.
B) HIPAA 837P.
C) HIPAA 835.
D) CMS-1800.
Question
If a patient has additional insurance coverage, after the primary payer's RA has been posted, the next step is

A) billing the second payer.
B) waiting until the patient pays.
C) waiting until the primary insurance bills the second payer.
D) determining what the write off amount is.
Question
Which of these HIPAA transactions is used by medical offices to ask payers about the status of submitted claims?

A) 835
B) 276
C) 837
D) 277
Question
A payer's automated claim edits may result in claim denial because of

A) lack of eligibility for a reported service.
B) lack of required preauthorization.
C) lack of medical necessity.
D) any of these.
Question
Concurrent care is care provided

A) at the same place of service by two or more physicians.
B) at the same place as a previous visit.
C) by two physician practices on the same date by two physicians.
D) to a patient on the same date at the same place of service by two or more physicians.
Question
The __________ is the person or entity who seeks to receive benefits via an appeal.

A) claimant
B) defendant
C) attorney
D) plaintiff
Question
The claim turnaround time is stated

A) payers do not have to publish this information.
B) in payer's policy manuals or contracts.
C) on the payer's website.
D) on the back of the patient's card.
Question
What is done by a payer to determine the appropriateness of medical services?

A) concurrent care
B) development
C) utilization review
D) determination
Question
If a Medicare beneficiary receives treatment covered by workers' compensation, the Medicare plan is

A) neither primary nor secondary.
B) primary.
C) either primary or secondary.
D) secondary.
Question
What is the correct order for the basic steps of a payer's adjudication process?

A) initial processing, automated review, manual review, determination, and payment
B) initial processing, manual review, automated review determination, and payment
C) manual review, initial processing, automated review, determination, and payment
D) automated review, initial processing, manual review, determination, and payment
Question
In general, how many levels are there when pursuing an appeal?

A) three
B) two
C) four
D) six
Question
A payer's decision regarding whether to pay, deny, or partially pay a claim is called

A) evaluation.
B) determination.
C) utilization.
D) adjudication.
Question
What will a payer do when a claim is submitted with a diagnosis code that is not valid for the date of service?

A) Payers may deny a claim when outdated codes are used.
B) Payers will not respond to the claim.
C) Payers are not permitted to deny a claim when outdated procedure codes are used.
D) Payers will typically pay and submit the claim to the provider with the correct procedure codes.
Question
The Medicare Secondary Payer program coordinates the benefits for patients who have both Medicare and

A) only additional Medicaid coverage.
B) only additional TRICARE coverage.
C) only other Medicare coverage.
D) any other insurance coverage.
Question
What does the abbreviation COB stand for?

A) Coordination of billing
B) Coordination of benefits
C) Cooperation of billing
D) Cooperation of benefits
Question
Medicare overpayments must be reported and the amount

A) must be returned within 60 days.
B) must be returned immediately.
C) does not exist, as Medicare does not make overpayments
D) does not have to be paid back.
Question
__________ is the process of determining whether to pay, reject, deny, or partially pay claims.

A) Determination
B) Adjudication
C) Redetermination
D) Appealing
Question
What code indicates an error has occurred in transmission?

A) F
B) P
C) A
D) E
Question
An __________ code indicates that a request for more information has been sent.

A) F
B) E
C) R
D) A
Question
A payer may __________ a procedure that it determines was not medically necessary at the level reported.

A) bundle
B) concurrent code
C) upcode
D) downcode
Question
What does "reconciliation" mean?

A) the insurance paid the amount that they owed
B) to double-check that totals are accurate and consistent
C) to have good communications between the physician practice and payers
D) the patient paid the amount that he/she owed
Question
If a Medicare beneficiary is covered by a spouse's employer group health plan, the Medicare plan is

A) primary.
B) secondary.
C) either primary or secondary.
D) neither primary nor secondary.
Question
The claimant is the

A) patient who appeals the claim.
B) provider who appeals the claim.
C) payer's employee who heads the medical review program.
D) patient or provider who appeals the claim.
Question
Which of the following is an example of concurrent care?

A) a case in which a patient is seen in the emergency room and then admitted by a different doctor to the floor
B) a case in which a patient is attended by two physicians, such as a cardiologist and a thoracic surgeon, during surgery
C) a case in which a patient is seen in the emergency room and transferred across town to a different facility
D) a case in which a nurse practitioner sees the patient and then transfers the care to a physician
Question
A pending claim is indicated by which claim status category code?

A) F
B) E
C) P
D) A
Question
__________ is a feature of some medical billing programs that automatically records payments in the correct accounts.

A) Autoposting
B) Determination
C) EFT
D) Reconciliation
Question
When is an appeal sent to third-party payers?

A) before a questionable claim is transmitted
B) after a claim is rejected or paid at less than the expected amount
C) after a claim is submitted
D) after a claim is paid
Question
What do MOA remark codes explain?

A) insurance aging report
B) Medicare payment decisions
C) concurrent care that was given
D) denials from claims
Question
The process of __________ means verifying that the totals on the RA are mathematically correct.

A) determination
B) reconciliation
C) autoposting
D) redetermination
Question
A __________occurs when a procedure and a diagnosis are not correctly linked, in the opinion of the payer.

A) redetermination
B) development
C) determination
D) medical necessity denial
Question
If a Medicare beneficiary receives treatment for an accident-related claim, the Medicare plan is

A) either primary or secondary.
B) secondary.
C) primary.
D) neither primary nor secondary.
Question
The claim turnaround time is the period between

A) the patient's encounter and the transmission of the resulting claim.
B) the patient's encounter and the date it was billed to the insurance.
C) the date the claim was paid by insurance to the time the patient paid his/her portion.
D) the date of claim transmission and receipt of payment.
Question
The abbreviation MRN stands for

A) Medicare Reinstatement Notice.
B) Medicare Redetermination Notice.
C) Medicare Rejection Notice.
D) Medicare Reconciliation Notice.
Question
The advantage(s) of EFT for practices is(are)

A) funds are available immediately and the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
B) the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
C) funds are available immediately.
D) neither funds are available immediately nor the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
Question
A Medicare Redetermination Notice explains

A) Medicare's unfavorable or partially favorable response to a request for redetermination.
B) Medicare's positive response to a request for redetermination.
C) Medicare's fines imposed after an audit.
D) Medicare's findings after an audit.
Question
In the appeals process, calendar days are considered

A) all days, including weekends.
B) Saturday and Sunday.
C) work days only.
D) Monday-Thursday.
Question
The payer's RA shows

A) the amount the provider is allowed.
B) the amount the patient pays.
C) both the amount the provider is allowed and the amount patient pays.
D) neither the amount the provider is allowed nor the amount the patient pays.
Question
A finalized claim is indicated by which claim status category code?

A) E
B) A
C) P
D) F
Question
When a payer's RA is received, the medical insurance specialist

A) does nothing, as these services are all computerized.
B) deposits that payment into the patient's bank account.
C) checks that the amount paid matches the expected payments.
D) sends the patient a refund of what the patient already paid.
Question
A payer's determination means it is going to

A) pay, deny, or partially pay the claim.
B) suspend the claim.
C) review the claim.
D) none of these are correct.
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Deck 13: Payments Ras, Appeals, and Secondary Claims
1
The __________ verifies the medical necessity of providers' reported procedures.

A) claims processor
B) physician
C) claims examiner
D) auditor
claims examiner
2
A payer's initial claim review may reject a claim due to

A) utilization review.
B) an invalid policy number.
C) lack of medical necessity.
D) noncovered services.
an invalid policy number.
3
The first step the medical billing specialist should check when reviewing RAs is to

A) check each payment.
B) start the appeals process.
C) call or email the payer with identified problems.
D) match up claims with the RA using the unique claim control number.
match up claims with the RA using the unique claim control number.
4
Which of these HIPAA transactions is sent by a payer to answer a question about a submitted claim?

A) 277
B) 837
C) 835
D) 276
Unlock Deck
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
5
Which of these HIPAA transactions is sent by a payer to explain a claim payment?

A) 276
B) 277
C) 835
D) 837
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
6
What may result from a lack of clear, correct linkage between the diagnosis and the procedure?

A) initial processing
B) medical necessity denial
C) redetermination
D) manual review
Unlock Deck
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
7
What is the claim status when the payer is developing the claim?

A) development
B) determination
C) suspended
D) concurrent care
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8
RA is the abbreviation for

A) remittance advice.
B) results advice.
C) remittance allowed.
D) results allowed.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
9
On an aging report, which category describes a current invoice?

A) 61-90 days
B) 31-60 days
C) over 90 days
D) 0-30 days
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Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
10
What happens if a provider does not provide an itemized statement to the Medicare beneficiary upon his/her request within thirty days?

A) The provider may be fined $100 per outstanding request.
B) Nothing because providers are not required to provide Medicare beneficiaries itemized statements.
C) The practice is closed for failure to respond.
D) The Medicare beneficiary is required to request an itemized statement again after thirty days.
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Unlock Deck
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11
Claim adjustment reason codes are used by payers to explain entries on

A) HIPAA 277 transactions.
B) denials.
C) RAs.
D) aging reports.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
12
The person filing an appeal is known as a(n) __________, regardless of whether that individual is a provider or a patient.

A) either the claimant or the appellant
B) claimant
C) griever
D) appellant
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13
Remittance advice remark codes are maintained by __________ but can be used by all payers.

A) QIO
B) CMS
C) HIPAA
D) OIG
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
14
Filing a grievance with the state insurance commission requires the __________ to investigate the complaint.

A) county
B) state
C) federal government
D) city
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
15
Funds that are electronically transferred from a payer are directly deposited in the

A) fiscal intermediaries account.
B) physician's bank account.
C) patient's bank account.
D) practice's bank account.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
16
The term __________ during claim adjudication means that the payer needs more information to process the claim.

A) redetermination
B) suspended
C) determination
D) development
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
17
Prompt-pay laws govern

A) physicians to pay pharmacies for medications.
B) patients to pay physicians for services.
C) physician practice payments of their suppliers' invoices.
D) insurance carriers' payments of providers' claims.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
18
Which of these codes might payers use to explain a determination?

A) claim adjustment group code
B) all of these answers are correct
C) remittance advice remark code
D) claim adjustment reason code
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19
A paper explanation of benefits (EOB) is sent to patients by payers after claims

A) are submitted.
B) are adjudicated.
C) are paid.
D) are denied.
Unlock Deck
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
20
An aging report groups unpaid claims or bills according to

A) the amount of time left to pay.
B) the length of time that they remain due.
C) aging reports are not grouped together.
D) the amount of money due.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
21
Which of the following statements is true?

A) Either Medicare or Medicaid can be the secondary payer, as it will depend on the patient's plans.
B) Neither Medicare nor Medicaid will be the secondary payer.
C) Medicaid is the secondary payer to Medicare.
D) Medicare is the secondary payer to Medicaid.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
22
A typical aging report groups payments that are due into which of these categories?

A) 0-30 days, 31-60 days, 61-90 days, 91-120 days, and over 121 days
B) 0-60 days, 61-120 days, 121-180 days, over 180 days
C) 0-15 days, 16-30 days, 31-45 days, 45-60 days
D) 0-45 days, 46-90 days, 91-135 days, over 135 days
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
23
During the adjudication process, if there are problems during the automated review, the claim is pulled for

A) determination.
B) development.
C) suspension.
D) pending status.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
24
A list of claims transmitted and how long they have been in process with the payer is shown in the

A) insurance log.
B) redetermination list.
C) insurance aging report.
D) patient aging report.
Unlock Deck
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
25
If a Medicare beneficiary is employed and covered by the employer's group health plan, the Medicare plan is

A) neither primary nor secondary.
B) primary.
C) secondary.
D) either primary or secondary.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
26
Claim adjustment reason codes are found on

A) the insurance aging report.
B) RAs.
C) accounts receivable reports.
D) the patient medical record.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
27
From the payer's point of view, __________ are improper or excessive payments resulting from billing errors for which the provider owes refunds.

A) grievances
B) overpayments
C) claimants
D) errors
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
28
Medical situations in which a patient receives extensive care from two or more providers on the same date of service are called

A) bundled care.
B) E/M services.
C) global period servicers.
D) concurrent care.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
29
If a medical practice believes that it has been treated unfairly by an insurance company, it has the right to file a __________ with the state insurance commission.

A) claim
B) lawsuit
C) complaint
D) grievance
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
30
What kind of code appears on payers' electronic reports on the progress of transmitted claims in their adjudication process?

A) remittance advice remark codes
B) MOA remark codes
C) claim status category codes
D) claim adjustment reason codes
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
31
The __________ of a claim refers to the payer's decision regarding payment.

A) determination
B) redetermination
C) autoposting
D) claimant
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
32
__________ follow up on claims that are not processed within the specified claim turnaround time for the payer.

A) Medical insurance specialists
B) Medical coders
C) Medical technicians
D) Physicians
Unlock Deck
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
33
Minor errors found by the practice on transmitted claims require which of the following?

A) corrections by asking the payer to reopen the claim and make the changes
B) corrections by asking the payer to adjust the charges
C) a denial
D) a completely new claim to be filed
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
34
The payer sends the medical practice

A) a separate RA and an individual EOB for each claim processed.
B) only an RA upon request.
C) a separate RA for each processed claim.
D) an RA that covers a batch of processed claims.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
35
An insurance aging report lists

A) amounts patients still owe the physician.
B) unpaid claims transmitted to payers by the length of time they remain due.
C) the practice's patients, their insurance information, and their ages.
D) the amount of supplies the practice needs to pay for.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
36
When a claim is pulled by a payer for a manual review, the provider may be asked to submit

A) revised procedure codes.
B) clinical documentation.
C) a new diagnosis.
D) revised charges.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
37
How often are claim adjustment reason codes and remark codes updated?

A) annually
B) three times per year
C) quarterly
D) never
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
38
A(n) __________ claim status category code is an acknowledgment that the claim has been received.

A) P
B) F
C) E
D) A
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
39
RAs generally have information on any

A) errors on the listed claims.
B) all of these are correct.
C) adjustments to the listed claims.
D) denials to the listed claims.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
40
A medical practice may choose to __________ a rejected or partially paid claim.

A) appeal
B) neither resubmit nor appeal
C) either appeal or resubmit
D) resubmit
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
41
If Medicare is the secondary payer, the claim must be submitted using the

A) HIPAA 276/277.
B) HIPAA 837P.
C) HIPAA 835.
D) CMS-1800.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
42
If a patient has additional insurance coverage, after the primary payer's RA has been posted, the next step is

A) billing the second payer.
B) waiting until the patient pays.
C) waiting until the primary insurance bills the second payer.
D) determining what the write off amount is.
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43
Which of these HIPAA transactions is used by medical offices to ask payers about the status of submitted claims?

A) 835
B) 276
C) 837
D) 277
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44
A payer's automated claim edits may result in claim denial because of

A) lack of eligibility for a reported service.
B) lack of required preauthorization.
C) lack of medical necessity.
D) any of these.
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45
Concurrent care is care provided

A) at the same place of service by two or more physicians.
B) at the same place as a previous visit.
C) by two physician practices on the same date by two physicians.
D) to a patient on the same date at the same place of service by two or more physicians.
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46
The __________ is the person or entity who seeks to receive benefits via an appeal.

A) claimant
B) defendant
C) attorney
D) plaintiff
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47
The claim turnaround time is stated

A) payers do not have to publish this information.
B) in payer's policy manuals or contracts.
C) on the payer's website.
D) on the back of the patient's card.
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48
What is done by a payer to determine the appropriateness of medical services?

A) concurrent care
B) development
C) utilization review
D) determination
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49
If a Medicare beneficiary receives treatment covered by workers' compensation, the Medicare plan is

A) neither primary nor secondary.
B) primary.
C) either primary or secondary.
D) secondary.
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50
What is the correct order for the basic steps of a payer's adjudication process?

A) initial processing, automated review, manual review, determination, and payment
B) initial processing, manual review, automated review determination, and payment
C) manual review, initial processing, automated review, determination, and payment
D) automated review, initial processing, manual review, determination, and payment
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51
In general, how many levels are there when pursuing an appeal?

A) three
B) two
C) four
D) six
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52
A payer's decision regarding whether to pay, deny, or partially pay a claim is called

A) evaluation.
B) determination.
C) utilization.
D) adjudication.
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53
What will a payer do when a claim is submitted with a diagnosis code that is not valid for the date of service?

A) Payers may deny a claim when outdated codes are used.
B) Payers will not respond to the claim.
C) Payers are not permitted to deny a claim when outdated procedure codes are used.
D) Payers will typically pay and submit the claim to the provider with the correct procedure codes.
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54
The Medicare Secondary Payer program coordinates the benefits for patients who have both Medicare and

A) only additional Medicaid coverage.
B) only additional TRICARE coverage.
C) only other Medicare coverage.
D) any other insurance coverage.
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55
What does the abbreviation COB stand for?

A) Coordination of billing
B) Coordination of benefits
C) Cooperation of billing
D) Cooperation of benefits
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56
Medicare overpayments must be reported and the amount

A) must be returned within 60 days.
B) must be returned immediately.
C) does not exist, as Medicare does not make overpayments
D) does not have to be paid back.
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57
__________ is the process of determining whether to pay, reject, deny, or partially pay claims.

A) Determination
B) Adjudication
C) Redetermination
D) Appealing
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58
What code indicates an error has occurred in transmission?

A) F
B) P
C) A
D) E
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59
An __________ code indicates that a request for more information has been sent.

A) F
B) E
C) R
D) A
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60
A payer may __________ a procedure that it determines was not medically necessary at the level reported.

A) bundle
B) concurrent code
C) upcode
D) downcode
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61
What does "reconciliation" mean?

A) the insurance paid the amount that they owed
B) to double-check that totals are accurate and consistent
C) to have good communications between the physician practice and payers
D) the patient paid the amount that he/she owed
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62
If a Medicare beneficiary is covered by a spouse's employer group health plan, the Medicare plan is

A) primary.
B) secondary.
C) either primary or secondary.
D) neither primary nor secondary.
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63
The claimant is the

A) patient who appeals the claim.
B) provider who appeals the claim.
C) payer's employee who heads the medical review program.
D) patient or provider who appeals the claim.
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64
Which of the following is an example of concurrent care?

A) a case in which a patient is seen in the emergency room and then admitted by a different doctor to the floor
B) a case in which a patient is attended by two physicians, such as a cardiologist and a thoracic surgeon, during surgery
C) a case in which a patient is seen in the emergency room and transferred across town to a different facility
D) a case in which a nurse practitioner sees the patient and then transfers the care to a physician
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65
A pending claim is indicated by which claim status category code?

A) F
B) E
C) P
D) A
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66
__________ is a feature of some medical billing programs that automatically records payments in the correct accounts.

A) Autoposting
B) Determination
C) EFT
D) Reconciliation
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67
When is an appeal sent to third-party payers?

A) before a questionable claim is transmitted
B) after a claim is rejected or paid at less than the expected amount
C) after a claim is submitted
D) after a claim is paid
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68
What do MOA remark codes explain?

A) insurance aging report
B) Medicare payment decisions
C) concurrent care that was given
D) denials from claims
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69
The process of __________ means verifying that the totals on the RA are mathematically correct.

A) determination
B) reconciliation
C) autoposting
D) redetermination
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70
A __________occurs when a procedure and a diagnosis are not correctly linked, in the opinion of the payer.

A) redetermination
B) development
C) determination
D) medical necessity denial
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71
If a Medicare beneficiary receives treatment for an accident-related claim, the Medicare plan is

A) either primary or secondary.
B) secondary.
C) primary.
D) neither primary nor secondary.
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
72
The claim turnaround time is the period between

A) the patient's encounter and the transmission of the resulting claim.
B) the patient's encounter and the date it was billed to the insurance.
C) the date the claim was paid by insurance to the time the patient paid his/her portion.
D) the date of claim transmission and receipt of payment.
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73
The abbreviation MRN stands for

A) Medicare Reinstatement Notice.
B) Medicare Redetermination Notice.
C) Medicare Rejection Notice.
D) Medicare Reconciliation Notice.
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74
The advantage(s) of EFT for practices is(are)

A) funds are available immediately and the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
B) the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
C) funds are available immediately.
D) neither funds are available immediately nor the transfer is less costly than check deposits.
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k this deck
75
A Medicare Redetermination Notice explains

A) Medicare's unfavorable or partially favorable response to a request for redetermination.
B) Medicare's positive response to a request for redetermination.
C) Medicare's fines imposed after an audit.
D) Medicare's findings after an audit.
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k this deck
76
In the appeals process, calendar days are considered

A) all days, including weekends.
B) Saturday and Sunday.
C) work days only.
D) Monday-Thursday.
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k this deck
77
The payer's RA shows

A) the amount the provider is allowed.
B) the amount the patient pays.
C) both the amount the provider is allowed and the amount patient pays.
D) neither the amount the provider is allowed nor the amount the patient pays.
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k this deck
78
A finalized claim is indicated by which claim status category code?

A) E
B) A
C) P
D) F
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79
When a payer's RA is received, the medical insurance specialist

A) does nothing, as these services are all computerized.
B) deposits that payment into the patient's bank account.
C) checks that the amount paid matches the expected payments.
D) sends the patient a refund of what the patient already paid.
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80
A payer's determination means it is going to

A) pay, deny, or partially pay the claim.
B) suspend the claim.
C) review the claim.
D) none of these are correct.
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Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 81 flashcards in this deck.